[LOGIC] Proof by Induction in Peano Arithmetic

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SUMMARY

This discussion focuses on the application of Peano Arithmetic (PA) axioms, specifically PA1-7, in constructing a proof by induction. The user encounters difficulties in transitioning from the base case, where y = S0, to the induction step, questioning the choice of successor for y. Participants clarify that induction is typically used to demonstrate properties for all natural numbers and suggest that the proof should be articulated in standard mathematical language rather than relying solely on logical deductions.

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  • Understanding of Peano Arithmetic axioms (PA1-7)
  • Familiarity with mathematical induction principles
  • Knowledge of basic mathematical logic
  • Ability to write formal mathematical proofs
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  • Study the structure of proofs in Peano Arithmetic
  • Learn about the induction schema and its applications
  • Explore the concept of contradiction in mathematical proofs
  • Review examples of formal proofs in mathematical logic
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Mathematics students, educators in mathematical logic, and anyone interested in formal proof techniques using Peano Arithmetic.

Firepanda
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I have to do the following using these axioms PA1-7, the others below it are previously proved results I can use too.

[Sa] means the successor of a.

263c5ee.png
Base Case: y = S0

x.S0 = S0

→ x.0 + x = S0

→ 0 + x = S0

→ x = S0 & y=S0

Now the induction step is usually y=a to y=Sa, however this does not work here, I assume I need to take a new y and it's successor to proceed. Would anyone know how to proceed and which y to take?

Thanks
 
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Firepanda said:
Now the induction step is usually y=a to y=Sa, however this does not work here, I assume I need to take a new y and it's successor to proceed. Would anyone know how to proceed and which y to take?

Why are you inducting here? You usually only use induction when you are trying to show that something is true for all natural numbers. So while your base case holds, any other case you try will fail.

How formally does this proof have to be done. If you are using the Peano axioms, then presumably you are taking a course in mathematical logic or something of the like, so it it alright to write the proof out in ordinary mathematical language?
 
Yeah we are advised to do this proof 'mathematically' rather than 'logically' (i.e not by natural deductions using rules of inference)

Here is an example proof, all the others have been done via the induction schema so I assumed this one was to be done that same way too

155gqcl.png


If not then I have no idea how to do it without induction for those axioms

I agree with what you're saying, it doesn't make sense that this holds for any other case other than S0, but then how do I show this?

Unless I derive some contradiction using PA1, and hence I can derive anything from that contradiction..

Thanks
 

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