Lorentz Invariant Majorana Neutrinos

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the properties and implications of Lorentz invariant Majorana neutrinos, focusing on the formulation of their Lagrangian and the transformation properties of spinors. Participants explore theoretical aspects, mathematical formulations, and the nature of spinor indices in the context of quantum field theory.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions the validity of a Lorentz invariant term for Majorana neutrinos, noting that their expansion results in zero, seeking clarification on the mistake made.
  • Another participant explains that a Majorana spinor is a special case of a Dirac spinor, consisting of two Weyl spinors that are charge conjugates of each other, and provides a Lagrangian formulation for Majorana neutrinos.
  • There is a discussion about the inclusion of kinetic terms in the Lagrangian, with one participant suggesting that both particle and antiparticle terms should be included, while another clarifies the need for a factor of 1/2 in the mass term.
  • Participants discuss the representation of Weyl spinors in the context of SO(10) Grand Unified Theory (GUT), questioning the correctness of the kinetic term proposed for the GUT Lagrangian.
  • Clarifications are made regarding the notation used for spinor indices, with some participants noting that the indices indicate different representations of Lorentz transformations.
  • There is a mention of the use of antisymmetric tensors for raising and lowering spinor indices, with participants expressing varying familiarity with this notation.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants exhibit a mix of agreement and disagreement regarding the formulation of the Lagrangian and the treatment of spinor indices. While some points are clarified, there remains uncertainty about the correct representation and implications of certain terms in the context of Majorana neutrinos and their Lagrangian.

Contextual Notes

Participants note limitations in their understanding of the implications of certain mathematical formulations and the representation of spinors, particularly in the context of GUTs and the specific properties of Majorana neutrinos.

rkrsnan
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I have a two component Weyl spinor transforming as \psi \rightarrow M \psi where M is an SL(2) matrix which represents a Lorentz transformation. Suppose another spinor \chi also transforms the same way \chi \rightarrow M \chi. I can write a Lorentz invariant term \psi^T (-i\sigma^2) \chi where (-i\sigma^2) =\left(\begin{array}{cc} 0 & -1 \\ 1 & 0 \end{array} \right). This is possible because M^T(-i\sigma^2)M=(-i\sigma^2). I understand everything up to here. My question is the following. For majorana neutrinos they write the Lagrangian as \psi^T (-i\sigma^2) \psi where \psi is the two component majorana field. The term is obviously Lorentz invariant, but when I expand it terms of the two components I get zero. (\psi_1 \ \psi_2)\left(\begin{array}{cc} 0 & -1 \\ 1 & 0 \end{array} \right)\left(\begin{array} (\psi_1 \\ \psi_2 \end{array} \right)=0.What mistake am I making here? Please help me out!
 
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A Majorana spinor has four components just as a Dirac spinor, in fact a Majorana spinor is a special case of a Dirac spinor. You can think of a Dirac spinor as a pair of Weyl spinors (Weyl spinors are more fundamental). The two Weyl spinors that make up a Majorana spinor are charge conjugate of each other.

If you think of the Majorana spinor \Psi_M=\left(\begin{array}{c}i\sigma^2\chi^{\dagger T}\\ \chi\end{array}<br /> \right)
then the lagragian is :
{\cal L}_M = \chi^\dagger\bar{\sigma}^\mu i\partial_{\mu}\chi -\frac{m}{2}(\chi\cdot\chi+\bar{\chi}\cdot\bar{\chi})
where the dot product is
\eta\cdot\chi = \eta^T(-i\sigma^2)\chi = \eta_2\chi_1-\eta_1\chi_2
Recall that fermions anticommute and have Grassmann components, so
\eta\cdot\eta = 2\eta_2\eta_1=-2\eta_1\eta_2
 
Things are clear now. Thank you very much, humanino!

It didn't occur to me that \psi_1 and \psi_2 are Grassmann variables and they anticommute, that's why I thought \psi_1 \psi_2-\psi_2 \psi_1 =0

In the lagrangian you wrote, shouldn't I include the kinetic term with \bar{\chi} also?

<br /> {\cal L}_M = \chi^\dagger\bar{\sigma}^\mu i\partial_{\mu}\chi + \bar{\chi}^\dagger \sigma^\mu i\partial_{\mu}\bar{\chi}-\frac{m}{2}(\chi\cdot\chi+\bar{\chi}\cdot\bar{\chi })<br />

As you said Weyl spinors are more fundamental. So are the 16 and \bar{16} appearing in the SO(10) GUT made of Weyl spinors? ie a total of 32 two component Weyl spinors? Then is the kinetic term for the GUT written below correct?

<br /> {\cal L} = \chi^\dagger\bar{\sigma}^\mu i D_{\mu}\chi + \bar{\chi}^\dagger \sigma^\mu i D_{\mu}\bar{\chi}+\psi^\dagger\bar{\sigma}^\mu i D_{\mu}\psi + \bar{\psi}^\dagger \sigma^\mu i D_{\mu}\bar{\psi}

where \chi and \psi are the 16 and \bar{16} spinor representations of SO(10)
 
If you want to add the antiparticle in the kinetic term of the lagragian, you can, but you need to include a 1/2 factor just as in the mass term, because your new term is identical to the first term (after dropping a surface term by integration by part). Let me be more precise. Take the usual Dirac lagrangian applied to the above \Psi_M, but multiply this lagrangian by 1/2 (why we include this 1/2 constant multiplicative term, just to get back we I had written before :smile:) :
{\cal L}_M = \frac{1}{2}\bar\Psi_M(\gamma^\mu i\partial_\mu-m)\Psi_M
and develop :
{\cal L}_M = <br /> \frac{1}{2}\chi_p^\dagger\bar{\sigma}^\mu i\partial_\mu\chi_p +<br /> \frac{1}{2}\chi_p^T(-i\sigma^2)\sigma^\mu (i\sigma^2)i\partial_\mu\chi_p^{\dagger T}<br /> -\frac{m}{2}\left[ <br /> \chi^T_p(-i\sigma^2)\chi_p+<br /> \chi^\dagger_p i\sigma^2 \chi_p^{\dagger T}<br /> \right]
{\cal L}_M = <br /> \frac{1}{2}\chi_p^\dagger\bar{\sigma}^\mu i\partial_\mu\chi_p +<br /> \frac{1}{2}\chi_p^T\bar{\sigma}^{\mu T}i\partial_\mu\chi_p^{\dagger T} <br /> -\frac{m}{2}(\chi_p\cdot\chi_p+\bar{\chi}_p\cdot\bar{\chi}_p)<br />

where I used \sigma^2\sigma^\mu\sigma^2=\bar{\sigma}^{\mu T}. Now integrate by part the second term :
\frac{1}{2}\chi_p^T\bar{\sigma}^{\mu T}i\partial_\mu\chi_p^{\dagger T} = -\frac{1}{2}\left(i\partial_\mu\chi_p^T\right)\bar{\sigma}^{\mu T}\chi_p^{\dagger T}

This is equal to the first term above : we generally have the scalar equality constructed out of 2 fermions and a matrix
\eta^T M \chi = -\chi^T M^T\eta

About SO(10), I think you are right about the number of Weyl spinors in the 16 and conjugate, but I have not studied SO(10) much, and not for a while at all, so I would need to check. I think other members would be more qualified to answer this.
 
Thanks for the explanation. I did some reading and as you said addition of extra term does not change the extremization of the Lagrangian. But they add the term to make the Lagrangian real.

Also the notation (the bars over the chi) I used was wrong. The correct notation is given below.

<br /> <br /> {\cal L}_M = \frac{1}{2}(i\bar{\chi}\sigma^\mu \partial_{\mu}\chi - i\chi\bar{\sigma}^\mu \partial_{\mu}\bar{\chi})-\frac{m}{2}(\chi\cdot\chi+\bar{\chi}\cdot\bar{\chi })<br /> <br />

The above lagrangian is real. May be the 1/2 factor here signifies the real part?

They put a bar to indicate conjugation and a dot for the corresponding spinor index. Upper and lower indices represent the right and left handed spinors respectively. If I explicitely show the spinor indices the Lorentz invariance will be evident.

<br /> <br /> {\cal L}_M = \frac{1}{2}(i\bar{\chi}^{\dot{\alpha}}\sigma_{\dot{\alpha}\beta}^\mu \partial_{\mu}\chi^{\beta} - i \chi^\alpha\bar{\sigma}_{\alpha \dot{\beta}}^\mu \partial_{\mu}\bar{\chi}^{\dot{\beta}})-\frac{m}{2}(\chi^\alpha\chi_\alpha+\bar{\chi}^{\dot{\alpha}}\bar{\chi}_{\dot{\alpha}})<br /> <br />
 
rkrsnan said:
<br /> <br /> {\cal L}_M = \frac{1}{2}(i\bar{\chi}^{\dot{\alpha}}\sigma_{\dot{\alpha}\beta}^\mu \partial_{\mu}\chi^{\beta} - i \chi^\alpha\bar{\sigma}_{\alpha \dot{\beta}}^\mu \partial_{\mu}\bar{\chi}^{\dot{\beta}})-\frac{m}{2}(\chi^\alpha\chi_\alpha+\bar{\chi}^{\dot{\alpha}}\bar{\chi}_{\dot{\alpha}})<br /> <br />
I'm not an expert on QFT and this may be irrelevant, but I thought that the spinor indices are customarily written either all up or all down, since they have nothing to do with contravariant and covariant vectors.
 
Yeah, they have nothing to do with contravariant or covariant vectors.
Actually they are used to indicate the two representations of the lorentz transformation. Let M be a unimodular 2x2 complex matrix(This matrix can be expressed in terms of 6 parameters which are the 6 parameters of the lorentz tranformation). Under lorenz tranformation a two component spinor tranforms as \chi \rightarrow M \chi. This is represented as \chi_\alpha \rightarrow M_\alpha^\beta \chi_\beta. Now we can have another unimodular matix which is the inverse of M. Thus M^{-1} represents another representation of the lorentz group. \psi \rightarrow M^{-1} \psi. We call \chi and \psi left and right handed spinors respectively. By convention right handed spinors have upper index. \psi^\alpha \rightarrow (M^{-1})^\alpha_\beta \psi^\beta
 
And one more thing, the raising and lowering of these spinor indices is done with the help of the 2x2 antisymetric thingly \epsilon_{\alpha \beta} and \epsilon^{\alpha \beta} which are also equal to -i \sigma^2 and i \sigma^2.

Lorentz tranformation.


\phi\cdot\phi = \phi_\alpha \phi^\alpha= \phi_\alpha \epsilon^{\alpha \beta} \phi_\beta \rightarrow M_\alpha^\gamma \phi_\gamma \epsilon^{\alpha \beta} M_\beta^\delta \phi_\delta = \phi_\gamma \epsilon^{\gamma \delta} \phi_\delta

hence lorentz invariant.

You can check and see that the above equation works for any unimodular matrix M.
 
rkrsnan said:
And one more thing, the raising and lowering of these spinor indices is done with the help of the 2x2 antisymetric thingly \epsilon_{\alpha \beta} and \epsilon^{\alpha \beta} which are also equal to -i \sigma^2 and i \sigma^2.
Okay, that makes sense. I have just never seen that notation for raising and lowering indices in spinor space. In my course, we would have written things like that simply as

\psi_{L\alpha} \epsilon_{\alpha \beta} \psi_{L\beta} \equiv \psi_L^T \epsilon \psi_L \rightarrow \psi_L^T M^T \epsilon M \psi_L = \psi_L^T \epsilon \psi_L,

or something like that.
 

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