Proof of Lorentz invariance of Klein-Gordon equation

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Discussion Overview

The discussion focuses on proving the Lorentz invariance of the Klein-Gordon equation by demonstrating the invariance of its action and the spacetime volume element under Lorentz transformations. It involves technical reasoning related to classical relativistic field theory.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Exploratory

Main Points Raised

  • One participant outlines a method to prove the Lorentz invariance of the Klein-Gordon Lagrangian by analyzing its transformation under a Lorentz transformation.
  • Another participant expresses a desire for confirmation of the correctness of the initial steps before proceeding to prove the invariance of the spacetime volume element.
  • A third participant suggests that the action's invariance follows from the transformation of the field and the summation over all points in spacetime.
  • A later reply states that the Jacobian of the Lorentz transformation is 1, implying that the spacetime volume element is also Lorentz invariant.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

There is some agreement on the correctness of the initial steps presented, but the discussion remains open as participants have not reached a consensus on all aspects of the proof.

Contextual Notes

Participants express varying levels of familiarity with quantum field theory and general relativity, indicating a range of expertise in the discussion.

spaghetti3451
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I would like to prove the Lorentz invariance of the Klein-Gordon equation by proving the invariance of the action ##\mathcal{S} = \int d^{4}x\ \mathcal{L}_{KG}## under a Lorentz tranformation.

I would like to do this by first proving the Lorentz invariance of the ##\mathcal{L}_{KG}## and then by proving the Lorentz invariance of the spacetime volume element ##d^{4}x##.

Firstly, under a Lorentz transformation ##\Lambda##,

##\mathcal{L}_{KG} = \frac{1}{2}(\partial_{\mu}\phi)(x)(\partial^{\mu}\phi)(x)-\frac{1}{2}m^{2}\phi^{2}(x) = \frac{1}{2}\eta^{\mu\nu}(\partial_{\mu}\phi)(x)(\partial_{\nu}\phi)(x)-\frac{1}{2}m^{2}\phi^{2}(x)##

##\qquad \rightarrow \frac{1}{2}\eta^{\mu\nu}{(\Lambda^{-1})^{\rho}}_{\mu}{(\Lambda^{-1})^{\sigma}}_{\nu}(\partial_{\rho}\phi)(\Lambda^{-1}x)(\partial_{\sigma}\phi)(\Lambda^{-1}x)-\frac{1}{2}m^{2}\phi^{2}(\Lambda^{-1}x)##

##\qquad = \frac{1}{2}{(\Lambda^{-1})^{\rho}}_{\mu}{(\Lambda^{-1})^{\sigma}}_{\nu}\eta^{\nu\mu}(\partial_{\rho}\phi)(\Lambda^{-1}x)(\partial_{\sigma}\phi)(\Lambda^{-1}x)-\frac{1}{2}m^{2}\phi^{2}(\Lambda^{-1}x)##

##\qquad = \frac{1}{2}{(\Lambda^{-1})^{\rho}}_{\mu}(\Lambda^{-1})^{\sigma\mu}(\partial_{\rho}\phi)(\Lambda^{-1}x)(\partial_{\sigma}\phi)(\Lambda^{-1}x)-\frac{1}{2}m^{2}\phi^{2}(\Lambda^{-1}x)##

##\qquad = \frac{1}{2}{(\Lambda^{-1})^{\rho}}_{\mu}(\Lambda)^{\mu\sigma}(\partial_{\rho}\phi)(\Lambda^{-1}x)(\partial_{\sigma}\phi)(\Lambda^{-1}x)-\frac{1}{2}m^{2}\phi^{2}(\Lambda^{-1}x)##

##\qquad = \frac{1}{2}\eta^{\rho\sigma}(\partial_{\rho}\phi)(\Lambda^{-1}x)(\partial_{\sigma}\phi)(\Lambda^{-1}x)-\frac{1}{2}m^{2}\phi^{2}(\Lambda^{-1}x)##

##\qquad = \frac{1}{2}\eta^{\sigma\rho}(\partial_{\rho}\phi)(\Lambda^{-1}x)(\partial_{\sigma}\phi)(\Lambda^{-1}x)-\frac{1}{2}m^{2}\phi^{2}(\Lambda^{-1}x)##

##\qquad = \frac{1}{2}(\partial^{\sigma}\phi)(\Lambda^{-1}x)(\partial_{\sigma}\phi)(\Lambda^{-1}x)-\frac{1}{2}m^{2}\phi^{2}(\Lambda^{-1}x)##

Are my steps to show that the Klein-Gordon Lagrangian ##\mathcal{L}_{KG}## is Lorentz invariant all correct?
 
There's nothing new to add to my post.

If someone checks my working and gives me a thumbs up, I will proceed to show that the spacetime volume element ##d^{4}x## is also Lorentz invariant, thus proving that the Klein-Gordon equation is Lorentz invariant (since the Klein-Gordon equation is derived from the variation of a soon-to-be-proved Lorentz invariant Klein-Gordon action).

I'm new to quantum field theory and general relativity, and so I'm practicing my technical skills and, in the process, learning the subjects.
 
As my query falls under the subject of classical (relativistic) field theory, I initially thought that the 'Classical Physics' subforum was better suited for this thread.
 
Your steps look correct to me. The transformation ##\phi \rightarrow \phi(\Lambda^{-1} x)## permutes the points of ##\mathbb{R}^4## and since you're summing over them all the action is invariant. The invariance of ##dx^4## I believe follows from ##\det(\Lambda)=1##.
 
Thanks!

Let me now prove the Lorentz invariance of the spacetime volume element ##d^{4}x##.

Under a Lorentz transformation ##\Lambda##,

##d^{4}x \rightarrow d^{4}x \Big|\frac{\partial x^{\mu}}{\partial x^{\mu'}}\Big|##, where ##\Big|\frac{\partial x^{\mu}}{\partial x^{\mu'}}\Big|## is the Jacobian of the Lorentz transformation.

The Jacobian of the Lorentz transformation = 1, so the spacetime volume element ##d^{4}x## is Lorentz invariant.
 
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