So, the upper light cone has a Lorentz invariant volume measure(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

[itex]dk =\frac{dk_{1}\wedge dk_{2} \wedge dk_{3}}{k_{0}}[/itex]

according to several sources which I have been reading. However, I've never seen this derived, and I was wondering if anyone knew how it was done, or could point me towards a source for it.

Cheers.

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Lorentz Invariant Volume Element

Loading...

Similar Threads for Lorentz Invariant Volume |
---|

I Question about gauge invariance and the A-B effect |

I Lorentz transformation and its Noether current |

I Size of an electron and Planck Volume. |

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**