Lorentz Transformations For Particle In Uniform Electromagnetic Field

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yusohard
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Homework Statement



A charge q is released from rest at the origin, in the presence of a uniform electric
field and a uniform magnetic field [itex]\underline{E} = E_0 \hat{z}[/itex] and [itex]\underline{B} = B_0 \hat{x}[/itex] in frame S.
In another frame S', moving with velocity along the y-axis with respect to S, the electric field is zero.
What must be the velocity v and the magnetic field in the frame S' ?

Show that the particle moves in S' in a circle of radius [itex]R=m\gamma^2 v / (q B_0)[/itex] What are the equations in [itex]x', y', z, t'[/itex] which describe the trajectory of the particle in the moving frame S' ?

By transforming from frame S’ show that the path of the particle in the original frame S is:
[itex]\gamma^2 (y-vt)^2 + (z-R)^2 = R^2[/itex]

Homework Equations



Transformations of electric and magnetic fields for boosts in y-direction:

[itex]E'_x = \gamma (E_x + \beta c B_z)[/itex]
[itex]E'_y = E_y[/itex]
[itex]E'_z = \gamma (E_z - \beta c B_x)[/itex]
[itex]B'_x = \gamma (B_x - (\beta / c) E_z )[/itex]
[itex]B'_y = B_y[/itex]
[itex]B'_z = \gamma (B_z + (\beta / c) E_x )[/itex]

Lorentz Force:

[itex]\underline{F} = m \gamma \frac{d v}{d x} = m \gamma \frac{v^2}{R} = q \underline{B} \times \underline{v}[/itex]

The Attempt at a Solution



Only the E field in the z-axis exists and, as stated in the problem, is zero:

[itex]E'_z = \gamma (E_0 - \beta c B_0) = 0 \rightarrow v=E_0/B_0[/itex]

And similarly only the B field in the x-axis has a solution, and using the equation for v above:

[itex]B'_x = \gamma (B_0 - (\beta / c) E_0 ) = \gamma B_0 (1 - E^2_0/c^2 B^2_0 ) = B_0 / \gamma[/itex]

Using the Lorentz force equation above:

[itex]m \gamma \frac{v^2}{R} = q B_0/\gamma \rightarrow R=m\gamma^2 v / (q B_0)[/itex]

Now i doubt how to write equations in [itex]x', y', z, t'[/itex] which describe the trajectory of the particle in the moving frame S'.

I think it should be:

[itex](y'^2 + z'^2) = R^2[/itex]

As it is in the yz-plane(right?)

If i transform back with [itex]y' = \gamma (y - vt)[/itex] and [itex]z'=z[/itex] I just get:

[itex]\gamma^2 (y - vt)^2 + z^2 = R^2[/itex]

Missing the [itex](z-R)^2[/itex] term.

Can anyone see where I've gone wrong or what I've missing?

Any help appreciated. Been driving me crazy.

Thanks in advance!
 
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Solved it.

For those interested:

It is indeed going in a circle in the zy-plane in S'. Since it starts at the origin in S' and goes clockwise, the equations of motion in terms of [itex]x', y', z' ,t'[/itex] are:

[itex]x'=0[/itex]
[itex]y'=-R Sin(\omega t')[/itex]
[itex]z'=R(1-Cos(\omega t'))[/itex]
Where [itex]\omega = v/R[/itex]

Transform via usual lorentz transforms for boosts in y-axis:

[itex]t'=\gamma (t - \frac{v}{c^2} y)[/itex]
[itex]y=\gamma (y' + v t')[/itex]

Subbing in for the primed parameters in and following through etc,etc,etc,etc,etc,etc:

[itex]y= vt - \frac{R}{\gamma} Sin(\omega \gamma (t - \frac{v}{c^2}y))[/itex]
[itex]z= R(1- \gamma R Cos(\omega \gamma (t - \frac{v}{c^2}y))[/itex]

Using your favourite trig formula (no prizes for that one), we can see indeed:

[itex]\gamma^2(y-vt)^2 + (z-R)^2 = R^2[/itex]

As required. I'll sleep easy tonight eh.