Magnetic field from a square loop

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The discussion focuses on deriving the magnetic field at a point along the axis of a square loop of wire carrying current I. The formula for the magnetic field is provided, and the participants explore the angles involved in calculating the magnetic field contributions from different segments of the loop. There is clarification on the relationship between the angles and the components of the magnetic field, particularly regarding the use of sine and cosine functions. The symmetry of the problem is emphasized, leading to a better understanding of how the angles relate to the x-axis. The conversation concludes with a resolution of the angle confusion, confirming the calculations.
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Homework Statement


A wire is formed into the shape of a square of edge length L. Show that when the current in
the loop is I, the magnetic field at point P a distance x from the center of the square along its axis is $$B=\frac{\mu_0 IL^2}{2\pi(x^2+L^2/4)\sqrt{x^2+L^2/2}}$$
Capture2.png


Homework Equations


##d\vec{B}=\frac{\mu_0}{4\pi}\frac{I\vec{ds}\times\hat{r}}{r^2}##

The Attempt at a Solution


Capture2.png
[/B]
##d\vec{B}=\frac{\mu_0}{4\pi}\frac{I\vec{ds}\sin\theta}{r^2}## where ##\theta## is the angle between ##\hat{r}## and ##\vec{ds}## therefore ##\sin\theta=\sqrt{\frac{x^2+L^2/4}{z^2+x^2+L^2/4}}##
From the symmetry of the problem it's clear that only the components parallel to ##x## will be leftover which seem to be given by ##\sin\phi## but in the solution they are given by ##\cos\phi## which doesn't make any sense to me.
 

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What angle does ##d\vec{B}## make to the x axis?
 
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TSny said:
What angle does ##d\vec{B}## make to the x axis?
Okay I got the angle it makes with the x-axis from the most basic case where ##x=0##

On one side of the x-axis all angles must add up to ##\pi## therefore (where x is the angle between ##d\vec{B}## and the x axis):
$$
\pi=(\pi/2-\phi)+\pi/2+x\Longrightarrow x=\phi
$$

Thanks it makes sense now!
 
Potatochip911 said:
On one side of the x-axis all angles must add up to ##\pi## therefore (where x is the angle between ##d\vec{B}## and the x axis):
$$
\pi=(\pi/2-\phi)+\pi/2+x\Longrightarrow x=\phi
$$

Yes. Nice.
 
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The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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