Magnetic vector potential in the case of specific current distribution

In summary: You're welcome, Zamot40 and Kau. I enjoyed working with you guys.In summary, the conversation discusses the use of the equation for the magnetic vector potential in the case of a specific current distribution and how to show by direct differentiation that its divergence is equal to zero. The solution involves taking the gradient with respect to both the primed and unprimed coordinates, using a trick to convert the derivatives, and then showing that the resulting integrals are equal to zero. This is done by utilizing the property that the divergence of a curl is equal to zero and setting the surface integral to zero by assuming there is no current at infinity.
  • #1
Zamot40
15
0
1. Use equation for the magnetic vector potential in the case of specific current distribution and show by direct differentiation that ∇[itex]\bullet[/itex]A=0
A(r)= µ[itex]_{0}[/itex]/4[itex]\pi[/itex] [itex]\int J(r')/|r-r'|[/itex] dv'




Homework Equations


∇[itex]\times[/itex] B(r)= µ0J(r)



The Attempt at a Solution



We know that: curl of B(r) = µ0J(r)
and that the divergence of a curl is equal to zero

This seems so simple can it really be the solution?
 
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  • #2
Hi, Zamot40 and welcome to Physics Forums!

The solution is not really that simple. :frown:

When you take the divergence of A(r), the derivatives are with respect to the argument of A; i.e., the unprimed coordinates. But in the integral, the argument of the current density J is r' (primed coordinates) which denote the integration variables. The only place that the unprimed coordinates appear in the integral is in the denominator |r-r'|. Thus, you should justify that

[itex]\cdot[/itex](J(r')/|r-r'|) = J(r')[itex]\cdot[/itex](1/|r-r'|)

Then comes a sleight of hand to convert the divergence derivatives over to the primed coordinates using (1/|r-r'|) = -'(1/|r-r'|). Proof left for you.

See if you can proceed from there. There's still a trick or two you'll need to invoke. :cool:
 
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  • #3
First of, thank you for the help.

Taking the gradient with respect to r' gives

[itex]\frac{r-r'}{|r-r'|^{3}}[/itex]

Hence the integral becomes [itex]\int J(r')\bullet\frac{r-r'}{|r-r'|^{3}} dv'[/itex]

I discussed your reply with a friend and I would like to know how one of the two in the equation below is zero
∇[itex]\bullet(f*\vec{F}) [/itex]= ∇f[itex]\bullet \vec{F}[/itex] + [itex]f∇\bullet \vec{F}[/itex]

I still have trouble seeing how we get to zero?
The integral is just the specific volume fx a box, J(r') can be seen as a cross section, but I don't see how it's possible to say that r-r' is perpendicular to J(r')
 
  • #4
Zamot40 said:
Taking the gradient with respect to r' gives [itex]\frac{r-r'}{|r-r'|^{3}}[/itex]

Good. And, of course, in the same way you can show taking the gradient with respect to the unprimed r gives [itex]\frac{r'-r}{|r-r'|^{3}}[/itex] which is just the negative of the gradient with respect to r'.

So, you have shown

(1/|r-r'|) = -'(1/|r-r'|)

Therefore, you have ##\cdot## A(r) = ∫##\cdot##[J(r')/|r-r'|] dV' = ∫J(r')##\cdot##∇(1/|r-r'|) dV' = -∫J(r')##\cdot##∇'(1/|r-r'|) dV'

Now see if you can use your identity [itex]∇'\bullet(f*\vec{F}) [/itex]= [itex](∇'f)\bullet \vec{F}[/itex] + [itex]f∇'\bullet \vec{F}[/itex] (where I have added primes to the ∇ operator) to rewrite the last integral as two terms and then show each term is zero. (Note that the last integral above has an integrand of the form of the first term on the right hand side of the identity.)
 
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  • #5
The divergence of J(r')=0 making the second term zero

leaving


[itex]\int \frac{r−r′}{|r−r′|^{3}} \bullet J(r') dv'[/itex]
where the gradient of [itex]1/|r-r'|[/itex]


I thought of several solutions but I can't really pin down the right one.
1: Making it into a closed surface integral and J(r') somehow equals to zero
[itex]\oint 1/|r-r'| \bullet J(r') \bullet n ds'[/itex]
2: Integrating with respect to r' in a closed line integral would somehow end in a zero.
 
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  • #6
We've gotten to ##\cdot## A(r) = -∫J(r')##\cdot##∇'(1/|r-r'|) dV', which you want to show is zero.

Rearrange the identity [itex]∇\:'\cdot(f\vec{F}) = (∇\:'f)\cdot \vec{F}+ f\:∇\:'\cdot \vec{F}[/itex] as

[itex]\vec{F}\cdot(∇\:'f) = ∇\:'\cdot(f\vec{F}) -f\:∇\:'\cdot \vec{F}[/itex]

Use this to rewrite the integral ∫J(r')##\cdot##∇'(1/|r-r'|)dV' as two integrals. (Do not write out ∇'(1/|r-r'|) as (r-r')/|r-r'|3).

You have hit on the right ideas to show that these two integrals will be zero: '##\cdot## J(r') = 0 and converting one of the integrals into a surface integral.
 
  • #7
I'm trying to solve the same problem and got to the same conclusion. But how do you justify that the surface integral is zero?
 
  • #8
You can think of the volume integrals as extending over all of infinite 3D space. So, the surface integral will be over a surface at infinity where you can assume there is no current.
 
  • #9
Thank you very much for this TSny, my whole class had problems with this excercise.
 

1. What is the magnetic vector potential?

The magnetic vector potential is a vector field that is used to describe the effects of magnetic fields in a specific region of space. It is defined as the curl of the magnetic field B, and is related to the magnetic flux through a surface by Stoke's theorem.

2. How is the magnetic vector potential calculated for a specific current distribution?

The magnetic vector potential can be calculated using the Biot-Savart law, which states that the magnetic field at a point due to a small current element is directly proportional to the current, the length of the element, and the sine of the angle between the element and the point. By integrating the contributions from all current elements, the magnetic vector potential can be determined for a specific current distribution.

3. What is meant by "specific current distribution"?

A specific current distribution refers to the arrangement and magnitude of the current flowing through a given region. This can include different types of currents, such as steady or time-varying, and can also refer to the shape and orientation of the current-carrying conductors.

4. What are the applications of the magnetic vector potential in science and engineering?

The magnetic vector potential is used in a wide range of fields, including electromagnetism, quantum mechanics, and fluid dynamics. It is particularly useful in the design and analysis of electromagnetic devices, such as motors, generators, and transformers. It is also used in the study of magnetic materials and their properties.

5. Can the magnetic vector potential be visualized or measured?

While the magnetic vector potential itself cannot be directly observed or measured, it is related to the observable magnetic field B through mathematical equations. Therefore, by measuring the magnetic field at various points, the magnetic vector potential can be indirectly inferred. Additionally, computer simulations and visualizations can be used to illustrate the behavior of the magnetic vector potential in different scenarios.

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