- #1
Zamot40
- 15
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1. Use equation for the magnetic vector potential in the case of specific current distribution and show by direct differentiation that ∇[itex]\bullet[/itex]A=0
A(r)= µ[itex]_{0}[/itex]/4[itex]\pi[/itex] [itex]\int J(r')/|r-r'|[/itex] dv'
∇[itex]\times[/itex] B(r)= µ0J(r)
We know that: curl of B(r) = µ0J(r)
and that the divergence of a curl is equal to zero
This seems so simple can it really be the solution?
A(r)= µ[itex]_{0}[/itex]/4[itex]\pi[/itex] [itex]\int J(r')/|r-r'|[/itex] dv'
Homework Equations
∇[itex]\times[/itex] B(r)= µ0J(r)
The Attempt at a Solution
We know that: curl of B(r) = µ0J(r)
and that the divergence of a curl is equal to zero
This seems so simple can it really be the solution?