Massive Scalar Field in 2+1 Dimensions

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the analogue of a specific equation for a massive scalar field in 2+1 dimensions, drawing parallels to a known equation in 3+1 dimensions. The original poster seeks to understand the transformation of integrals and the application of Bessel functions in this context.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the transformation of integrals into polar coordinates and the challenges faced with the theta integral. There is an exploration of the relationship between the integrals and Bessel functions, with some questioning the definitions and representations of these functions.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the mathematical expressions and exploring different representations of Bessel functions. There is a recognition of the need for clarification on definitions and the integral transformations being used. Some guidance has been offered regarding rewriting integrals in terms of new variables.

Contextual Notes

There is a mention of constraints related to the integration limits and the forms of the integrals that may affect the application of contour integration methods. Additionally, references to specific mathematical resources indicate a reliance on established definitions and representations.

xGAME-OVERx
Messages
86
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



We wish to find, in 2+1 dimensions, the analogue of E = - \frac{1}{4\pi r} e^{-mr} found in 3+1 dimensions. Here r is the spatial distance between two stationary disturbances in the field.

Homework Equations



In 3+1 we start from E = - \int \frac{ d^3 k }{(2\pi)^3} \frac{1}{ {\bf{k}}^2 + m^2 } e^{ i {\bf{k}} \cdot ( {\bf{x}}_1 - {\bf{x}}_2 ) } where \bf{k} is momentum, and \bf{x}_i are the spatial locations of the two disturbances.

The Attempt at a Solution



I think in 2+1 we must use the equation E = - \int \frac{ d^2 k }{(2\pi)^2} \frac{1}{ {\bf{k}}^2 + m^2 } e^{ i {\bf{k}} \cdot ( {\bf{x}}_1 - {\bf{x}}_2 ) }. I begin by transforming to polar coordinates, i.e. E = - \frac{1}{(2\pi)^2} \int_{0}^{\infty} dk \int_{0}^{2\pi} d\theta \frac{k}{ k^2 + m^2 } e^{ i k r \cos\theta }.

However, I am not sure what to do with this. As far as I know the theta integral can't be done in this form, and the r integral extends only down to 0, preventing it from being amenable to countour integration methods.

I tried a common trick of writing:

E = - \frac{1}{(2\pi)^2} \int_{0}^{\infty} dk \int_{0}^{2\pi} d\theta \frac{\partial}{\partial r} \frac{1}{i\cos\theta} \frac{1}{ k^2 + m^2 } e^{ i k r \cos\theta }

Which just makes the integral worse (I think). Any pointers would be greatly appreciated.

Thanks
Scott
 
Physics news on Phys.org
xGAME-OVERx said:
I think in 2+1 we must use the equation E = - \int \frac{ d^2 k }{(2\pi)^2} \frac{1}{ {\bf{k}}^2 + m^2 } e^{ i {\bf{k}} \cdot ( {\bf{x}}_1 - {\bf{x}}_2 ) }. I begin by transforming to polar coordinates, i.e. E = - \frac{1}{(2\pi)^2} \int_{0}^{\infty} dk \int_{0}^{2\pi} d\theta \frac{k}{ k^2 + m^2 } e^{ i k r \cos\theta }.

However, I am not sure what to do with this. As far as I know the theta integral can't be done in this form, and the r integral extends only down to 0, preventing it from being amenable to countour integration methods.

Integration over \theta gives you the Bessel function of the first kind.

This leave you with E = - \frac{1}{2\pi} \int_0^{\infty} dk \frac{k}{k^2 + m^2} J_0 (kr)

This I think is another Bessel function...Second Kind...I think. Look it up in a table.
 
Last edited:
Thank you for your reply, but that doesn't match any of the definitions I have seen for Bessel functions. May I ask which definition you are using?

Thanks
Scott

EDIT: Sorry, found it in Abramowitz & Stegun...
 
Last edited:
xGAME-OVERx said:
Thank you for your reply, but that doesn't match any of the definitions I have seen for Bessel functions. May I ask which definition you are using?

Thanks
Scott

EDIT: Sorry, found it in Abramowitz & Stegun...

Rewrite the integral in term of a new variable t = \cos\theta. Then it conforms to the first integral representation here: http://functions.wolfram.com/Bessel-TypeFunctions/BesselJ/07/01/01/
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
1K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 19 ·
Replies
19
Views
3K
Replies
19
Views
3K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K