Measure the state of the second qubit

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on calculating the probability of measuring the second qubit in a quantum state represented by the expression ##(4|00\rangle+3i|11\rangle)\otimes (|0\rangle+i|1\rangle) + (2|01\rangle -i|10\rangle)\otimes(|0\rangle-|1\rangle)##. The initial assumption of a 50% probability for the second qubit being zero is corrected to a probability of 17/30 after normalizing the wavefunction. The final state of the three qubits post-measurement is expressed as ##\frac{1}{\sqrt{34}} (4|000\rangle + 4i|001\rangle -i|100\rangle +i|101\rangle)##, with a recommendation to use notation that clearly separates the states of the first and third qubits.

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Kara386
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Homework Statement


For the state
##(4|00\rangle+3i|11\rangle)\otimes (|0\rangle+i|1\rangle) + (2|01\rangle -i|10\rangle)\otimes(|0\rangle-|1\rangle)##
What's the probability of zero being the outcome of measuring the second bit and what is the state of the other two qubits after measurement?

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


Expanding the tensor product, for half the states the second qubit is zero so the probability is half, but I don't know what I can say about the state of the other two. Because in states where the second qubit is zero, the other qubits are sometimes one and sometimes zero I think? Unless I've calculated the states wrong? I had the final state after measurement as this:

##\frac{1}{\sqrt{34}} (4|000\rangle + 4i|001\rangle -i|100\rangle +i|101\rangle)##
Which tells me about all three qubits after measurement not just two of them.
Thanks for any help, I really appreciate it!
 
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Kara386 said:
Expanding the tensor product, for half the states the second qubit is zero so the probability is half
The part in bold is not correct.

Kara386 said:
##\frac{1}{\sqrt{34}} (4|000\rangle + 4i|001\rangle -i|100\rangle +i|101\rangle)##
Which tells me about all three qubits after measurement not just two of them.
That's just a question of notation. You can factor out the state of qubit 2, and write the remaining kets for qubits 1 and 3. (To avoid confusion, I would write something like ##| 00 \rangle_{1,3}## for state ##| 000 \rangle##, etc.)
 
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DrClaude said:
The part in bold is not correct.That's just a question of notation. You can factor out the state of qubit 2, and write the remaining kets for qubits 1 and 3. (To avoid confusion, I would write something like ##| 00 \rangle_{1,3}## for state ##| 000 \rangle##, etc.)
Ah, if I actually normalise the wavefunction and use the coefficients then I get a probability of 17/30. And I'll adopt that notation for my answer, thank you, I really appreciate your help!
 
Kara386 said:
Ah, if I actually normalise the wavefunction and use the coefficients then I get a probability of 17/30.
That's better!
 

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