Measure Theory-Lebesgue Measurable

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the continuity of the function f(x) defined in the context of Lebesgue measurable sets, specifically focusing on a set A with finite Lebesgue measure. The participants explore the implications of the definition of Lebesgue measure and its continuity properties.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the definition of the Lebesgue measure and its implications for the function f(x). There is an exploration of how to formalize intuitive understandings of the measure of portions of A relative to x. Questions are raised about bounding the differences in function values and the relevance of the finite measure condition.

Discussion Status

Guidance has been offered regarding how to approach the continuity proof, including hints about bounding differences in function values and the role of the measure of sets. Multiple interpretations of the problem are being explored, particularly in relation to the intuitive versus formal aspects of the solution.

Contextual Notes

Participants note confusion regarding the definition of the Lebesgue measure and its application in proving continuity, indicating a need for clarification on these foundational concepts.

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Homework Statement


Let A \subseteq R be a Lebesgue-Measurable set. Prove that if the Lebesgue measure of A is less than infinity , then the function f(x) = \lambda(A \cap (-\infty,x)) is continous.

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution


I'm really confused about the definition of \lambda (A) where \lambda is the Lebesgue-measure...I've tried taking an \epsilon >0 and choosing some \delta >0 for which if |x-x_0 | < \delta then |f(x)-f(x_0)| <\epsilon but I don't think this is the point...

I'll be delighted to get some guidance

Thanks !
 
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Intuitively, f(x) is the measure of the portion of A "left of x". So if x < x', can you interpret f(x') - f(x) in terms of measures?
 
Intuitively, f(x')- f(x) is measure of the portion of A between x and x' ... Intuitively , this whole thing seems quite trivial...But when I try to get to the formal aspect of the soloution (as seen in "The attempt at a solution" part) , everything messes out... How can I make the intuition more formal ?
I really hope you'll be able to help me

Thanks !
 
Here are two hints:

1. Given that intuitive description of f(x') - f(x), try to come up with an upper bound for f(x') - f(x) in terms of x' - x. This is what you need to prove continuity. (What property of A would give the largest possible value for f(x') - f(x)?)

2. The fact that \lambda(A) < \infty is irrelevant to the continuity of f; you need it merely to define f.
 
What is f(x)-f(x0)?

Hint: you must use that if A\subseteq B and if those two sets have finite measure, then \lambda(B\setminus A)=\lambda(B)-\lambda(A).
 
Thanks a lot! your guidance was very helpful!
 

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