mfb said:
The magnetic field goes around the superconductor.
We could assume the magnetic field is avoiding the superconductor,
http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/b/b5/EfektMeisnera.svg
Just like putting an object in a stream of water, the water goes around the object but not passing through it.
mfb said:
You can write the total magnetic field as sum of an external field (going through the superconductor) plus an internal field (generated by the superconductor) - both cancel exactly in the superconductor, so its interior is free of magnetic fields (assuming type-1 superconductors here).
Makes perfect sense when they cancel out, the superconductor has induced currents that do that. But why isn't it just like poled dipoles? They repel each other? Why "expel" a external magnetic field? Because of the equal magnetic fields B
1 - B
2 = 0?
About the Type I superconductors... I know that Type II would sometimes "allow" some of the external magnetic field to penetrate it's surface. But that is an effect of related to it's temperature I think, at some point. The Type II conductor acts like Type I by now allowing those flux lines to penetrate it(Not sure).
mfb said:
You still have the interaction of those fields (or the internal currents and the external fields, if you like), leading to a force.
How? We agreed they cancel out each other, so there really shouldn't be a force. I think that's why they don't "attract" or "repel" each other like two dipoles?
I doubt there is a force between a superconductor and a magnet, the forces just cancel out since the fields do.
The mind boggling thing is, the fields cancel each other out, how would their be a force?