Mobius transformation satisfying certain properties

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the conditions under which a Möbius transformation \( F \) maps \( 0 \) to \( \infty \) and \( \infty \) to \( 0 \). It is established that this occurs if and only if \( F(z) = dz^{-1} \) for some \( d \in \mathbb{C} \). The analysis reveals that if \( s \neq 0 \) in the standard form \( F(z) = \frac{pz+q}{rz+s} \), then \( F(0) \) cannot equal \( \infty \), necessitating \( s = 0 \). Consequently, the transformation simplifies to \( F(z) = \frac{q}{rz} \), confirming the required form.

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kalish1
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I'm having some trouble showing that a Mobius transformation $F$ maps $0$ to $\infty$ and $\infty$ to $0$ iff $F(z)=dz^{-1}$ for some $d \in \mathbb{C}.$ Mainly with the "only if" part. Do I need to use pictures?

This is Exercise $23$ in Section $3.3$ of Conway's *Functions of One Complex Variable*.

This question has been crossposted here: complex analysis - Mobius transformation satisfying certain properties - Mathematics Stack Exchange
 
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kalish said:
I'm having some trouble showing that a Mobius transformation $F$ maps $0$ to $\infty$ and $\infty$ to $0$ iff $F(z)=dz^{-1}$ for some $d \in \mathbb{C}.$ Mainly with the "only if" part.
The Möbius transformation has the form $F(z) = \dfrac{pz+q}{rz+s}$. If $s\ne0$ then $f(0) = \dfrac qs$, which is not equal to $\infty$. Therefore we must have $s=0$, and $F(z) = \dfrac{pz+q}{rz} = \dfrac pr + \dfrac q{rz}$. For this to take $\infty$ to $0$ we must have $p=0$. Therefore $F(z) = \dfrac{q}{rz}$, which is of the form that you want.
 

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