qspeechc
- 839
- 15
Hello everyone. My question is quite long, so please bear with me; my professor is very busy and cannot help me at the moment, and I can't contact the course tutor.
We have the DE
\ddot \theta + \alpha \dot \theta + \sin{\theta } = \epsilon \cos{\omega t}
where theta is the angle the pendulum makes with the vertical, and the RHS represents the driving force. \omega is not near any resonant frequencies. \epsilon is a small perturbation, and \alpha is small.
We should solve this DE for small angles theta. The assignment says
\theta (t) = \epsilon \phi (t) and \phi is of order 1.
So, the Taylor seres expansion of sine gives
\sin{\theta } = \theta - \theta ^3/6 + ...
I am doing a first order expansion (only keeping terms up to the order of epsilon^1), therefore we can keep only the first term in the expansion, as \sin{\theta} is of the order \epsilon. But then the governing DE is linear! Is this correct, because this is meant to be a non-linear oscillator assignment? Anyway, if I then keep the first two terms in the expansion of sine we get
\ddot \theta + \alpha \dot \theta + \theta - \frac{\theta ^3}{6} = \epsilon \cos{\omega t}
If I try to solve this directly by the multiple scale method, I do
\theta = \theta _0 + \epsilon \theta _1
where \theta _n =\theta _n(T_0,T_1,...) and T_n=\epsilon ^nt.
If I define
D_n = \frac{\partial }{\partial T_n}
then multiple scales gives:
collecting terms of coefficient \epsilon ^0:
{D_0}^2\theta _0 + \alpha D_0\theta _0 + \theta_0 - \frac{\theta_0 ^3}{6} = 0
This is just the homogeneous form of the governing DE. Therefore, if you try solving this by multiple scales, and collecting terms \epsilon ^0 again, you will find the method requires you to solve the exact same DE again, an infinite regression of the same DE! So how do we go about this? I could use a straight expansion \theta = \theta + \epsilon \theta but I encounter the same problem. I cannot use other techniques to solve this.
Now, if instead I make the substitution \theta = \epsilon \phi, the governing DE becomes
\ddot \phi + \alpha \dot \phi + \phi - \frac{\epsilon ^2\phi ^3}{6} = \cos{\omega t}
Since I only do a first order expansion, this reduces to
\ddot \phi + \alpha \dot \phi + \phi = \cos{\omega t}
But this is simply the linear, damped, driven oscillator! So solving this gives an amplitude and phase which are constants, and that is obviously not correct for a non-linear oscillator, surely? Help, I am confused.
We have the DE
\ddot \theta + \alpha \dot \theta + \sin{\theta } = \epsilon \cos{\omega t}
where theta is the angle the pendulum makes with the vertical, and the RHS represents the driving force. \omega is not near any resonant frequencies. \epsilon is a small perturbation, and \alpha is small.
We should solve this DE for small angles theta. The assignment says
\theta (t) = \epsilon \phi (t) and \phi is of order 1.
So, the Taylor seres expansion of sine gives
\sin{\theta } = \theta - \theta ^3/6 + ...
I am doing a first order expansion (only keeping terms up to the order of epsilon^1), therefore we can keep only the first term in the expansion, as \sin{\theta} is of the order \epsilon. But then the governing DE is linear! Is this correct, because this is meant to be a non-linear oscillator assignment? Anyway, if I then keep the first two terms in the expansion of sine we get
\ddot \theta + \alpha \dot \theta + \theta - \frac{\theta ^3}{6} = \epsilon \cos{\omega t}
If I try to solve this directly by the multiple scale method, I do
\theta = \theta _0 + \epsilon \theta _1
where \theta _n =\theta _n(T_0,T_1,...) and T_n=\epsilon ^nt.
If I define
D_n = \frac{\partial }{\partial T_n}
then multiple scales gives:
collecting terms of coefficient \epsilon ^0:
{D_0}^2\theta _0 + \alpha D_0\theta _0 + \theta_0 - \frac{\theta_0 ^3}{6} = 0
This is just the homogeneous form of the governing DE. Therefore, if you try solving this by multiple scales, and collecting terms \epsilon ^0 again, you will find the method requires you to solve the exact same DE again, an infinite regression of the same DE! So how do we go about this? I could use a straight expansion \theta = \theta + \epsilon \theta but I encounter the same problem. I cannot use other techniques to solve this.
Now, if instead I make the substitution \theta = \epsilon \phi, the governing DE becomes
\ddot \phi + \alpha \dot \phi + \phi - \frac{\epsilon ^2\phi ^3}{6} = \cos{\omega t}
Since I only do a first order expansion, this reduces to
\ddot \phi + \alpha \dot \phi + \phi = \cos{\omega t}
But this is simply the linear, damped, driven oscillator! So solving this gives an amplitude and phase which are constants, and that is obviously not correct for a non-linear oscillator, surely? Help, I am confused.