Need help with lim sqrt(n)/n as n-> infinity

  • Thread starter Thread starter twoflower
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Infinity
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The limit of the nth root of the factorial, expressed as \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sqrt[n]{n!}, approaches infinity. This conclusion is reached by applying Stirling's inequality, which states that \ln n! > n\ln{n} - n. The discussion highlights the incorrect assumption that the product of limits can be simplified without considering the changing number of terms as n increases. The correct approach involves recognizing that the limit diverges due to the growth rate of n! compared to n^n.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of limits in calculus
  • Familiarity with factorial notation and properties
  • Knowledge of Stirling's inequality
  • Basic logarithmic functions and their properties
NEXT STEPS
  • Study Stirling's approximation in detail
  • Learn about the properties of logarithms in limits
  • Explore advanced limit techniques in calculus
  • Investigate the implications of factorial growth rates in combinatorics
USEFUL FOR

Students and professionals in mathematics, particularly those studying calculus, combinatorics, or mathematical analysis, will benefit from this discussion.

twoflower
Messages
363
Reaction score
0
Hi,

could you help me a bit with this limit?

<br /> \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sqrt[n]{n!}<br />

Sure it should be more than

<br /> \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sqrt[n]{n}<br />

But, when I write it as

<br /> <br /> \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sqrt[n]{n!} = \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sqrt[n]{n} . \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sqrt[n]{n-1} . \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sqrt[n]{n-2} ... \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sqrt[n]{1}<br />

each term goes to 1, so I thought the limit could be 1, but that would be strange...

Thank you.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Hint: Use the corollary that (1+h)^ n > 1+ hn. Also you know that limit of nth root n is 1.
 
Regard the following trick (regard even values of n):
n!=n^{n}\prod_{i=1}^{\frac{n}{2}}(1-\frac{i-1}{n})\prod_{j=1}^{\frac{n}{2}}(1-\frac{\frac{n}{2}+j-1}{n})
Now,
\prod_{i=1}^{\frac{n}{2}}(1-\frac{i-1}{n})\geq\prod_{i=1}^{\frac{n}{2}}(1-\frac{1}{2})=(\frac{1}{2})^{\frac{n}{2}}
And:
\prod_{j=1}^{\frac{n}{2}}(1-\frac{\frac{n}{2}+j-1}{n})\geq\frac{1}{n^{\frac{n}{2}}}

Hence,
n!\geq{n}^{n}(\frac{1}{2})^{\frac{n}{2}}\frac{1}{n^{\frac{n}{2}}}=(\frac{n}{2})^{\frac{n}{2}}

This should help you..
 
courtrigrad said:
Hint: Use the corollary that (1+h)^ n > 1+ hn. Also you know that limit of nth root n is 1.

Thank you, but I can't see how could I use the inequality you suggested. Could you be more specific please?
 
arildno said:
Hence,
n!\geq{n}^{n}(\frac{1}{2})^{\frac{n}{2}}\frac{1}{n^{\frac{n}{2}}}=(\frac{n}{2})^{\frac{n}{2}}

This should help you..

So the thing you say is that

<br /> n! &gt; \sqrt{ \frac{n^{n}}{2^{n}}}<br />

I know this thing goes to infinity. And is THIS the reason, why also

<br /> \sqrt[n]{n!}<br />

goes to infinity? But there is n-th root, why doesn't it make a difference?
 
arildno said:
Regard the following trick (regard even values of n):
n!=n^{n}\prod_{i=1}^{\frac{n}{2}}(1-\frac{i-1}{n})\prod_{j=1}^{\frac{n}{2}}(1-\frac{\frac{n}{2}+j-1}{n})

Btw I can't imagine I would think up such a trick while writing a test
:mad:
 
twoflower said:
Btw I can't imagine I would think up such a trick while writing a test
:mad:
You must be Canadian.
 
BobG said:
You must be Canadian.

Why should I be Canadian?
 
twoflower said:
So the thing you say is that

<br /> n! &gt; \sqrt{ \frac{n^{n}}{2^{n}}}<br />

I know this thing goes to infinity. And is THIS the reason, why also

<br /> \sqrt[n]{n!}<br />

goes to infinity? But there is n-th root, why doesn't it make a difference?
Of course, we have:
(n!)^{\frac{1}{n}}&gt;((\frac{n}{2})^{\frac{n}{2}})^{\frac{1}{n}}=\sqrt{\frac{n}{2}}
 
  • #10
twoflower said:
Btw I can't imagine I would think up such a trick while writing a test
:mad:
You speak Canadian (see bold).

You open the lights and close lights, as well, right?
 
  • #11
BobG said:
You speak Canadian (see bold).

You open the lights and close lights, as well, right?

What's strange on writing ?
 
  • #12
twoflower said:
What's strange on writing ?


because Americans "take" a test
 
  • #13
rpc said:
because Americans "take" a test

Oh I see it now. It doesn't definitely mean I'm Canadian :) I'm just not that familiar with these phrases (although I know this one... :approve: )
 
  • #14
1st off: the reason why your method is wrong, is because you make the equality:
<br /> \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sqrt[n]{n!} = \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sqrt[n]{n}\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sqrt[n]{n-1} \ldots<br />

But when you take the limit of n\rightarrow\infty the number of limits doesn't change as n increases. So you start of with n limits, multiplied with each other. Each individual limit has a limit of 1. But then you don't take into account that the number of limits multiplied together also changes, when n increases.

Anyways:
<br /> \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sqrt[n]{n!} =<br />
<br /> \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} e^{\frac{1}{n}\ln{n!}} <br />

Note again, that you can't write this as:
<br /> \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} e^{\frac{1}{n}(\ln{n}+\ln{n-1}+\ln{n-2}+...)} =<br />
and then take the limit of each logarithm separately. Again, because the number of logarithms also changes with n.

Instead, you could for instance use the Stirling inequality:
<br /> \ln n! &gt; n\ln{n} - n<br />

<br /> \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} e^{\frac{1}{n}\ln{n!}} &gt;<br />
<br /> \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} e^{\frac{1}{n}(n\ln{n}-n)} = \infty<br />
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 21 ·
Replies
21
Views
1K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
3K
  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
2K
  • · Replies 13 ·
Replies
13
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
831
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 20 ·
Replies
20
Views
2K