Negative binomial transformation and mgf

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on calculating the moment generating function (mgf) of a negative binomial distribution defined by the probability mass function (pmf) f_X(x) = \binom{r+x-1}{x}p^{r}(1-p)^{x}, where 0 PREREQUISITES

  • Negative binomial distribution and its properties
  • Moment generating functions (mgf) for discrete random variables
  • Limit theorems and L'Hospital's rule
  • Transformation of random variables
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Mogarrr
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Imo, this problem is crazy hard.

Homework Statement



Let X have the negative binomial distribution with pmf:

f_X(x) = \binom{r+x-1}{x}p^{r}(1-p)^{x}, x=0.1.2...,

where 0<p<1 and r is a positive integer.
(a) Calculate the mgf (moment generating function) of X.

(b) Define a new random variable by Y=2pX. Show that as p \downarrow 0, the mgf of Y converges to that of a chi squared random variable with 2r degrees of freedom by showing that

lim_{p \to 0} M_Y(t) = (\frac 1{1-2t})^{r}, |t|< \frac 12.


Homework Equations



the moment generating function for a discrete random variable, denoted as M_X(t) is equal to

\sum_x e^{tx}f_X(x)

The Attempt at a Solution


So I think I've figured out part (a), but I'm stuck on part (b).

For part (a) the mgf is

\sum_{x=0}^{\infty} e^{tx} \binom{r+x-1}{x}p^{r}(1-p)^{x} = \sum_{x=0}^{\infty} \binom{r+x-1}{x}p^{r}(e^{t}(1-p))^{x}.

I would think that...

\sum_{x=0}^{\infty} \binom{r+x-1}{x}(1-e^{t}(1-p))^{r}(e^{t}(1-p))^{x} = 1,

since this is another negative binomial pmf (probability mass function), whose sum must be 1.

So now I do my sneaky trick...

\frac {(1-(1-p)e^{t})^{r}}{(1-(1-p)e^{t})^{r}} \frac {p^{r}}{p^{r}} \sum_{x=0}^{\infty} \binom{r+x-1}{x}p^{r}(e^{t}(1-p))^{x} = \frac {p^{r}}{(1-(1-p)e^{t})^{r}} \cdot \sum_{x=0}^{\infty} \binom{r+x-1}{x}(1-e^{t}(1-p))^{r}(e^{t}(1-p))^{x} = <br /> \frac {p^{r}}{(1-(1-p)e^{t})^{r}}.

So if this is correct, that takes care of part (a).

For part (b) I have Y = 2pX, so y = 2px \iff x = \frac {y}{2p}. I think this is a bijection, so I have

f_Y(y) = \sum_{x \in g^{-1}(y)} f_X(x) = f_X(\frac {y}{2p}).

I'm not too sure about this transformation, but continuing on, I have mgf of Y is

\sum_y e^{ty}f_Y(y) = \sum_y e^{yt} \binom {r + \frac {y}{2p} - 1}{\frac {y}{2p}}p^{r}(1-p)^{\frac {y}{2p}}...

I could continue on, but the trick I used earlier doesn't seem to work on this summation. Please help.
 
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Mogarrr said:
Imo, this problem is crazy hard.

Homework Statement



Let X have the negative binomial distribution with pmf:

f_X(x) = \binom{r+x-1}{x}p^{r}(1-p)^{x}, x=0.1.2...,

where 0&lt;p&lt;1 and r is a positive integer.
(a) Calculate the mgf (moment generating function) of X.

(b) Define a new random variable by Y=2pX. Show that as p \downarrow 0, the mgf of Y converges to that of a chi squared random variable with 2r degrees of freedom by showing that

lim_{p \to 0} M_Y(t) = (\frac 1{1-2t})^{r}, |t|&lt; \frac 12.


Homework Equations



the moment generating function for a discrete random variable, denoted as M_X(t) is equal to

\sum_x e^{tx}f_X(x)

The Attempt at a Solution


So I think I've figured out part (a), but I'm stuck on part (b).

For part (a) the mgf is

\sum_{x=0}^{\infty} e^{tx} \binom{r+x-1}{x}p^{r}(1-p)^{x} = \sum_{x=0}^{\infty} \binom{r+x-1}{x}p^{r}(e^{t}(1-p))^{x}.

I would think that...

\sum_{x=0}^{\infty} \binom{r+x-1}{x}(1-e^{t}(1-p))^{r}(e^{t}(1-p))^{x} = 1,

since this is another negative binomial pmf (probability mass function), whose sum must be 1.

So now I do my sneaky trick...

\frac {(1-(1-p)e^{t})^{r}}{(1-(1-p)e^{t})^{r}} \frac {p^{r}}{p^{r}} \sum_{x=0}^{\infty} \binom{r+x-1}{x}p^{r}(e^{t}(1-p))^{x} = \frac {p^{r}}{(1-(1-p)e^{t})^{r}} \cdot \sum_{x=0}^{\infty} \binom{r+x-1}{x}(1-e^{t}(1-p))^{r}(e^{t}(1-p))^{x} = <br /> \frac {p^{r}}{(1-(1-p)e^{t})^{r}}.

So if this is correct, that takes care of part (a).

For part (b) I have Y = 2pX, so y = 2px \iff x = \frac {y}{2p}. I think this is a bijection, so I have

f_Y(y) = \sum_{x \in g^{-1}(y)} f_X(x) = f_X(\frac {y}{2p}).

I'm not too sure about this transformation, but continuing on, I have mgf of Y is

\sum_y e^{ty}f_Y(y) = \sum_y e^{yt} \binom {r + \frac {y}{2p} - 1}{\frac {y}{2p}}p^{r}(1-p)^{\frac {y}{2p}}...

I could continue on, but the trick I used earlier doesn't seem to work on this summation. Please help.

The mgf of ##Y = 2pX## is ##M_Y(t) = E e^{tY} = E e^{2pt X} = M_X(2pt)##.
 
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Ray Vickson said:
The mgf of ##Y = 2pX## is ##M_Y(t) = E e^{tY} = E e^{2pt X} = M_X(2pt)##.

That seems simple.

So M_X(2pt) = (\frac {p}{1-(1-p)e^{2pt}})^{r}, right?
 
Ok, then taking the limit as p approaches 0, and ignoring the exponent r, for now, I have...

lim_{p \to 0} \frac {p}{(1-(1-p)e^{2pt})} = lim_{p \to 0} \frac {p}{(1-e^{2pt}+pe^{2pt})} = \frac 00.

Applying L'Hospital's rule, I have...

lim_{p \to 0} \frac {\frac {d}{dp}}{\frac {d}{dp}}\frac {p}{(1-e^{2pt}+pe^{2pt})} = lim_{p \to 0} \frac 1{(-2te^{2pt}+e^{2pt}+pe^{2pt})} = \frac 1{(1-2t)}.

Putting everything together I have...

lim_{p \to 0} M_Y(t) = (\frac 1{(1-2t)})^{r}.

Is it legit to ignore the exponent while taking the limit?
 
Yes, why not? The function f(w) = w^r is continuous in w for fixed integer r > 0.
 
Last edited:

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