Smithf Messages 5 Reaction score 0 Thread starter Dec 14, 2011 #1 Why don't the vector bosons K(0*) and K-bar(0*) mix the way the pseudo-scalar bosons, K(0) and K-bar(0) do?
Why don't the vector bosons K(0*) and K-bar(0*) mix the way the pseudo-scalar bosons, K(0) and K-bar(0) do?
Vanadium 50 Staff Emeritus Science Advisor Education Advisor Gold Member Dearly Missed Messages 35,014 Reaction score 21,725 Dec 14, 2011 #2 Please calculate the lifetime of the K* in units of the Kshort lifetime. Is the answer obvious now?
Smithf Messages 5 Reaction score 0 Dec 14, 2011 #3 I don't know how to do the suggested calculation -- I was expecting some sort of selection rule to apply
I don't know how to do the suggested calculation -- I was expecting some sort of selection rule to apply
Smithf Messages 5 Reaction score 0 Dec 14, 2011 #4 Is the idea that the K* just decays too quickly into Kπ by a strong interaction?
Vanadium 50 Staff Emeritus Science Advisor Education Advisor Gold Member Dearly Missed Messages 35,014 Reaction score 21,725 Dec 14, 2011 #5 Bingo. And you do know how to do the calculation. Look up both numbers and divide.