Why does this amplitude not vanish by the Ward identity?

In summary, the Feynman diagram shows the process where an electron emits a photon. The amplitude for this process is given by \overline{|M|^2}=8\pi\alpha\left(-g^{\mu\nu}+\epsilon^\mu_+\epsilon^\nu_-+\epsilon^\mu_-\epsilon^\nu_+\right)\left(p_\mu p^\prime_\nu+p_\nu p^\prime_\mu-g_{\mu\nu}pp^\prime\right), where the polarisation sum for massless vector bosons was used. However, by the Ward identity, the parts of the amplitude involving polarisation vectors should vanish. This is not the case here, but it is the only diagram at
  • #1
weningth
6
2
TL;DR Summary
An electron emits a photon. The amplitude for this process is calculated and then the polarisation sum for the photon is performed. However, the terms proportional to the unphysical polarisations do not vanish. Why is that?
Consider the process [itex]e^-\rightarrow e^-\gamma[/itex] depicted in the following Feynman diagram.

amp_q-qg.png


The spin-averaged amplitude with linearly polarised photons is
[tex]\overline{|M|^2}=8\pi\alpha\left(-g^{\mu\nu}+\epsilon^\mu_+\epsilon^\nu_-+\epsilon^\mu_-\epsilon^\nu_+\right)\left(p_\mu p^\prime_\nu+p_\nu p^\prime_\mu-g_{\mu\nu}pp^\prime\right),[/tex]
where the polarisation sum for massless vector bosons was used in terms of the unphysical polarisation vectors [itex]\epsilon_\pm=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\left(\epsilon_t\pm\epsilon_L\right)[/itex], [itex]\epsilon_t=(1,\mathbf{0}), \epsilon_L=\frac{1}{|\mathbf{k}|}(0,\mathbf{k})[/itex].

Now, by the Ward identity the parts of the amplitude of the form [itex]\epsilon^\mu_\pm M_\mu[/itex] should vanish since [itex]\epsilon_+\parallel k[/itex]. However, since [itex]\epsilon_+\epsilon_-=1[/itex] I find that instead
$$\overline{|M|^2}=16\pi\alpha\left(\epsilon^\mu_+p\epsilon^\nu_-p^\prime+\epsilon^\mu_-p\epsilon^\nu_+p^\prime\right).$$

I know that in general the Ward identity does not hold for individual diagrams but only for the sum of all relevant ones. However, the above diagram is the only one to this order in [itex]\alpha[/itex].

Why does the term [itex]\left(\epsilon^\mu_+\epsilon^\nu_-+\epsilon^\mu_-\epsilon^\nu_+\right)\left(p_\mu p^\prime_\nu+p_\nu p^\prime_\mu-g_{\mu\nu}pp^\prime\right)[/itex] not vanish?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #2
Your diagram is unphysical as a standalone diagram as it violates unitarity. This is being hinted by the condition that Ward identity as an operation of Polarization vector on amplitude does not vanish. Since there are no other diagrams at level \alpha, you can not consider this diagram with both lines as external lines.

You can however add an external potential to the diagram to make it unitary and the process will be similar to Bremmstrahlung.
 
  • Like
Likes weningth and vanhees71
  • #3
Great answer! Thanks.
 

1. Why is the amplitude non-zero in the first place?

The amplitude in question is typically calculated in the context of quantum field theory, where particles are described as excitations of quantum fields. These fields have non-zero values even in the vacuum state, leading to non-zero amplitudes.

2. What is the Ward identity and how does it relate to this amplitude?

The Ward identity is a mathematical relationship that arises from the gauge symmetry of a quantum field theory. It relates the amplitudes for different processes involving the same particles and fields. In the case of this non-vanishing amplitude, the Ward identity implies that it is connected to other amplitudes in a non-trivial way.

3. Can the non-vanishing amplitude be explained by other physical phenomena?

In general, no. The non-vanishing amplitude is a fundamental property of the quantum field theory being studied and is not related to any other physical phenomena. It is a consequence of the underlying mathematical framework and cannot be explained by other physical processes.

4. Are there any experimental observations that confirm the non-vanishing amplitude?

Yes, there have been numerous experiments in particle physics that have confirmed the predictions of quantum field theory, including the existence of non-vanishing amplitudes. These experiments provide strong evidence for the validity of the theory and its predictions.

5. Is there any way to make the amplitude vanish?

No, the non-vanishing amplitude is a fundamental property of the quantum field theory and cannot be made to vanish without fundamentally changing the theory itself. However, there may be certain special cases or approximations where the amplitude can be made to effectively vanish, but this is not a general solution.

Similar threads

  • High Energy, Nuclear, Particle Physics
Replies
9
Views
3K
  • High Energy, Nuclear, Particle Physics
Replies
4
Views
1K
  • High Energy, Nuclear, Particle Physics
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • High Energy, Nuclear, Particle Physics
Replies
1
Views
3K
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • High Energy, Nuclear, Particle Physics
Replies
2
Views
9K
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • Advanced Physics Homework Help
Replies
1
Views
3K
  • High Energy, Nuclear, Particle Physics
Replies
3
Views
4K
  • Advanced Physics Homework Help
Replies
1
Views
2K
Back
Top