- #1
soumyashant
- 9
- 0
If all subgroups of a group are normal, is the group abelian?
I know that the answer is NO...
Can you give a counter-example..?
Better still can you logically deduce some property the counter-example must have, which will ease our way to finding it...
I know that the answer is NO...
Can you give a counter-example..?
Better still can you logically deduce some property the counter-example must have, which will ease our way to finding it...