Normalization of a wave function with cosine

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the normalization of a wave function given by psi = Cexp(-abs(x))exp(-iwt)cos(pix). Participants are exploring the complexities involved in computing the integral necessary for normalization.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the process of normalizing the wave function, with one suggesting to split the integral into positive and negative parts. There is a focus on simplifying the integral, with various methods proposed, including using exponential forms of the cosine function.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants offering different strategies for handling the integral. Some express concerns about the complexity of the integral and the presence of imaginary components, while others suggest that these issues may resolve during the integration process.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the challenges of integrating a wave function that includes absolute values and trigonometric functions, indicating a potential need for clarity on the properties of the functions involved.

wakko101
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I need to normalize the following wave function:

psi= Cexp(-abs(x))exp(-iwt)cos(pix)

I know that when squaring it, the time dependent part drops out, which is good, but what I seem to be left with is

Psi^2=C^2exp(-2abs(x))cos^2(pix)

Which seems like a fairly complicated integral to compute. I'm thinking that there is something that I'm missing about this particular wave function that will make it easier to integrate?

Any help?

Cheers,
wakko =)
 
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Split it into x>0 and x<0 parts. For the positive part drop the abs. The negative part is the same since the integrand is even.
 
That's not really the problem I'm having...I understand that I can double the integral over 0 to infinity, I'm just wondering if there is a simpler way to to figure out the integral itself.

Thanks anyway.
 
cos(pi*x)=(exp(i*pi*x)+exp(-i*pi*x))/2. If you do it that way you can turn the whole thing into one big exponential. Otherwise you can integrate by parts. It IS a somewhat complicated integral to compute. But not the worst.
 
but if I do the conversion, I end up with an integrand that has i still in it, don't I? that doesn't seem right to me...
 
It will seem right when all of the i's cancel in the end.
 
It's a bit easier to use cos x=Re[exp(ix)]
 

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