# Not every metric comes from a norm

1. Nov 14, 2009

### littleHilbert

Hello!

It is said that not every metric comes from a norm.

Consider for example a metric defined on all sequences of real numbers with the metric:

$$d(x,y):=\displaystyle\sum_{i=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{2^i}\frac{|x_i-y_i|}{1+|x_i-y_i|}$$

I can't grasp how can that be.

There is a proof, so could you please give me hints so that I can try and do the proof on my own.

At the moment I can only see that the whole thing is bounded by 1. What does it actually mean when we say "it does not come from a norm"?

2. Nov 14, 2009

### Office_Shredder

Staff Emeritus
3. Nov 14, 2009

### littleHilbert

4. Nov 14, 2009

### rasmhop

Re: Metric

On the site linked by Office_Shredder:
Thus for a metric not to come from a norm means that there exists no norm that induces that metric. Thus you must show that d is a metric, but that if p(v) is any norm, then $p(x-y) \not= d(x,y)$ for some pair x,y.

5. Nov 16, 2009

### littleHilbert

Re: Metric

this was easier than I thought. In fact take x=(1,1,...), then 2||x|| is not equal to ||2x||!

First I tried to see whether the triangle inequality is not satisfied, but it did not to work, because both the norm and the metric seem somehow to be "conform" in this respect.