Undergrad On what plane of existence do quantum computations occur?

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The discussion revolves around the concept of quantum computations and their relation to possible worlds, with a focus on the idea of "planes of existence." One participant suggests that possible worlds are distinct to maintain counterfactual definitiveness, while another critiques the term "plane of existence" as meaningless and unanswerable. The conversation emphasizes the need for a deeper understanding of quantum mechanics (QM) through formal study rather than speculative questions. Ultimately, the thread concludes with a reminder to refrain from posting ungrounded inquiries and to prioritize learning QM fundamentals.
TunnelingthuWorlds
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Dimentionality, Many-World-Hypothesis
I was recommended by another mentor to purchase a good book on MWI, which I think should be a thread or poll of its own.

Anyway, I might have debased myself too much in that other topic, as I understand on an abstract level how QM works.

In my own words, I feel as though possible worlds are separated in some sense, otherwise, counterfactual definitiveness would never occur, and statistics would blow up.

Yet, much how we build tunnels through mountains instead of traversing over them, I believe that something similar in principle (and if not in principle, then why not) could happen between possible worlds.

To stop the meandering, I will simply ask, on what plane of existence do quantum computations occur?
 
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TunnelingthuWorlds said:
on what plane of existence do quantum computations occur?

The term "plane of existence" is meaningless. So this question is not answerable.

TunnelingthuWorlds said:
much how we build tunnels through mountains instead of traversing over them, I believe that something similar in principle (and if not in principle, then why not) could happen between possible worlds.

This is personal speculation and is off limits here at PF.

TunnelingthuWorlds said:
I understand on an abstract level how QM works.

Your questions do not support this claim. Please take the time to work through a textbook on QM and learn how it actually works.

This thread is closed. Please do not post another question along these lines; you have already posted several threads that, as you appear to recognize, have not gone well. The way to change that is not to keep posting questions as they occur to you. It is for you to take the time to learn QM.
 
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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