If I have one dimensional problem with many particles that are all in same ##|\psi\rangle## state is it equal to one dimensional problem of one particle in state ##|\psi\rangle##.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

If I have for example 50 particles in some state ##\psi(x)## in infinite potential well and that state is symmetric around ##\frac{a}{2}## such that ##\int^{\frac{a}{2}}_0|\psi(x)|^2dx=\frac{1}{2}##. Is in that case true statement that ##25## particles are in the region ##0<x<\frac{a}{2}## and 25 are in the region ##\frac{a}{2}<x<a##?

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# One dimensional problems. More particles.

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