Lets start with a line segment from zero to 1 and instead of removing like the middle 1/3 can we remove an infinitesimal amount, and then keep doing this forever. It seems like this set would still have measure 1. Unless I don't understand measure or infinitesimals. And if we looked at the line would it look like a line or dust on the line?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# One more question about the cantor set.

Loading...

Similar Threads - more question cantor | Date |
---|---|

A Nonlinear regression in two or more independent variables | Jul 6, 2017 |

A Advanced Data Fitting - More than Simple Regressions | Jun 22, 2017 |

I What is more probable? | Nov 13, 2016 |

More questions about Relations | May 8, 2011 |

Basic probability question: 1 or more objects in N cells | Feb 3, 2009 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**