One more question about the cantor set.

  • Context: Graduate 
  • Thread starter Thread starter cragar
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Cantor Set
Click For Summary

Discussion Overview

The discussion centers around the concept of removing infinitesimal amounts from a line segment, specifically in relation to the Cantor set and measure theory. Participants explore the implications of such removals on the measure of the resulting set and its visual representation.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants propose removing an infinitesimal amount from the interval [0, 1] repeatedly, questioning whether the resulting set would still have measure 1.
  • Others argue that the definition of "infinitesimal amount" needs clarification, suggesting limits of sets obtained by removing progressively smaller segments.
  • A participant suggests defining an infinitesimal as 1/x as x approaches infinity, leading to discussions about the nature of infinitesimals.
  • Another participant questions whether multiplying 1/2 by itself indefinitely could represent an infinitesimal, but this is challenged based on properties of the real number system.
  • There is a mention of non-standard models of the reals and their relation to infinitesimals, though some participants express unfamiliarity with this area.
  • Participants discuss the implications of expressions involving 0 and infinity, with some asserting that certain operations like 0 * ∞ are undefined.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

The discussion remains unresolved, with multiple competing views on the definition and implications of infinitesimals, as well as the mathematical operations involving zero and infinity.

Contextual Notes

Limitations include the lack of a clear definition of infinitesimals, the dependence on the properties of the real number system, and unresolved mathematical expressions involving limits and undefined operations.

cragar
Messages
2,546
Reaction score
3
Lets start with a line segment from zero to 1 and instead of removing like the middle 1/3 can we remove an infinitesimal amount, and then keep doing this forever. It seems like this set would still have measure 1. Unless I don't understand measure or infinitesimals. And if we looked at the line would it look like a line or dust on the line?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
cragar said:
Lets start with a line segment from zero to 1 and instead of removing like the middle 1/3 can we remove an infinitesimal amount, and then keep doing this forever. It seems like this set would still have measure 1. Unless I don't understand measure or infinitesimals. And if we looked at the line would it look like a line or dust on the line?

you need to better define what you mean by removing an infinitesimal amount.


If you mean what would be the limit of the sets obtained say by removing middle fifths then middle sevenths then middle 11'ths and so on it is clear that it will have measure one. What do you think the set would look like?
 
I wanted to remove an infinitesimal amount from the start, like as close as I can get to zero. But on your example, it seems like the set would look like scattered points,
 
cragar said:
I wanted to remove an infinitesimal amount from the start, like as close as I can get to zero. But on your example, it seems like the set would look like scattered points,

What do you mean by an infinitesimal amount?
 
can I define it as 1/x and x goes to infinity?
 
cragar said:
can I define it as 1/x and x goes to infinity?

to me that is zero. I do not know what an infinitesimal amount is.
 
close to zero but not zero. could I define it as multiplying 1/2 to itself forever.
 
cragar said:
close to zero but not zero. could I define it as multiplying 1/2 to itself forever.

Nope. Notice that limn→∞2-n = 0. In fact, since the ordinary real number system is archimedean, it has no non-zero infinitesimal elements.

One way to get infinitesimal elements involves using the compactness theorem to construct a non-standard model of the reals. I am not familiar with the measure theory of non-standard models of R so I cannot give you any more information than this.
 
ok, thanks for your responses. so I can have stuff like (0)*(Infinity)=1
 
  • #10
cragar said:
ok, thanks for your responses. so I can have stuff like (0)*(Infinity)=1

No. Even in non-standard models of the reals, you still do not have anything like 0 * ∞ = 1.
 
  • #11
why couldn't I just have [itex]\frac{1}{2^x}(2^x)[/itex] and have x go to infinity
 
  • #12
cragar said:
why couldn't I just have [itex]\frac{1}{2^x}(2^x)[/itex] and have x go to infinity

Notice that limx→∞2-x2x+1 = 2. Do you see any problem with this? If you want to include the term +∞ in your number system, then you have to leave things like 0 * ∞ as undefined.
 
  • #13
ok. I thought we could do some 0*infinity limits with L'Hôpital's rule,but maybe I am wrong.
And yes I do see something wrong with what you said.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 22 ·
Replies
22
Views
4K
  • · Replies 55 ·
2
Replies
55
Views
9K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
4K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
4K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
4K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
3K
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K