Order of an Integer mod m (number theory help)

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If ab ≡ 1 mod m, then the orders of a and b modulo m are equal, meaning ord(m)a = ord(m)b. The order of an integer a mod m is defined as the smallest integer k such that a^k ≡ 1 mod m. The discussion explores the implications of this definition, suggesting that if a^(ord(m)a) ≡ 1 mod m and b^(ord(m)b) ≡ 1 mod m, then the product ab can be expressed in terms of these orders. The user is considering the relationship between the orders and the congruence of the product ab, indicating a focus on the minimality characteristic of the order. The conclusion emphasizes the need to connect these concepts to demonstrate the equality of the orders.
Ch1ronTL34
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Ok, my question is:

Show that if ab == 1 mod m, then
ord(m)a=ord(m)b

(Note that == means congruent) and ord(m)a means the order of a mod m

I know that if a^k==1 mod m, then the ord(m)a is the smallest integer k such that the congruence holds. For example,
ord(10)7=4 since 7^4==1 mod m.

I'm thinking, a^(ord(m)a)==1 mod m so maybe ab=a^ord(m)a and also:
b^(ord(m)b)==1 mod m so ab=b^ord(m)a

Am i on the right track? Thanks!
 
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I dislike unnecessary notation, so suppose the order of a is m, then what is 1^m=(ab)^m? Similarly if the order of b is n, what is 1^n=(ab)^n? Thus...? (remember the order is characterized by minimilality.)
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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