Orthonormality and the Stark Effect

  • Thread starter Thread starter BOAS
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Stark effect
Join the discussion
Ask a follow-up here, or get your own question answered by working scientists, mathematicians and engineers — people, not an autocomplete.
Real named experts · corrections over time · the nuance an AI answer skips
2 replies · 2K views
BOAS
Messages
546
Reaction score
19

Homework Statement


A Hydrogen atom is in a homogeneous electric field. The field's interaction with the atom is described by the Hamiltonian ##\hat H = e E_0 r \cos \theta##.

Calculate the energy shift due to the linear stark effect in the following state of Hydrogen.

##\Psi = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} (\psi_{200} + \psi_{210})##

Hint: Use the fact that ##r \cos \theta = r \sqrt{\frac{4 \pi}{3}} Y_{1,0}## and the orthonormality of the spherical harmonics.

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


[/B]
From first order perturbation theory:

##\Delta E = \int_{dv} \Psi^* \hat H \Psi##

##\Delta E = \frac{1}{2} \int^{\infty}_0 \int^{2\pi}_0 \int^{\pi}_0 (\psi_{200}^* + \psi_{210}^*) \hat H (\psi_{200} + \psi_{210})##

Substituting the hint into the Hamiltonian, and using the fact that ##\psi_{nlm} = R_{nl} Y_{lm}## to separate the integral.

##I_{angular} = \int^{2\pi}_0 \int^{\pi}_0 (Y_{00}^* + Y_{10}^*)(Y_{00} + Y_{10}) Y_{10} \sin \theta d\theta d\phi##

I am confused about how to apply the argument of orthonormality to the product of three spherical harmonics. How do I proceed?

Thanks for any help you can give!
 
on Phys.org
In general the product of three spherical harmonics is called a Gaunt integral. In this case, we can make the simplification that [itex]Y_{00} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{4\pi}}[/itex]. Also you can make the case that since you have [itex]m = 0[/itex] you can convert to Legendre polynomials and use https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Associated_Legendre_polynomials to reduce the integrals to product of two only.
 
Dr Transport said:
In general the product of three spherical harmonics is called a Gaunt integral. In this case, we can make the simplification that [itex]Y_{00} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{4\pi}}[/itex]. Also you can make the case that since you have [itex]m = 0[/itex] you can convert to Legendre polynomials and use https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Associated_Legendre_polynomials to reduce the integrals to product of two only.

Oh that makes perfect sense, I should have seen that.

Thank you for your help!