Astronuc said:
On the other hand, 2 millenia from 500 BC is about 1500 CE, and so maybe the statement is valid. In the list given by HRW, there is a big gap between Priscian (Latin; 6th cent AD; grammarian) and Petrus Ramus (French; 16th cent; logician), the later coming along about 2 millenia after Panini.
Well, that list isn't complete in any way, but, yeah, that is a big gap. It does correspond roughly to the Middle ('Dark') Ages (so-called for a reason), so a dearth is perhaps to be expected. You might find some work on language having been done by the so-called medieval philosophers. They did work on logic during that time.
But were the concepts of "phoneme, the morpheme and the root" only realized after the 1500's in Europe?
The phonemes of a language are roughly just the 'sounds' of the language, e.g., /b, p, t, d, f, v, s, z/ are some of English's phonemes. The concept of phoneme is contrasted with the concept of phone. Phones are basic speech sounds (i.e., speech as acoustic signals), while phonemes are basic speech sounds as used in a particular language. The two concepts are useful because not only do different languages use different phones, they can also use the same phones in different ways. For example, English doesn't make a phonemic distinction between the sounds underlined in (1).
(1) a. ba
t [bæt]
(1) [/color]b. ba
tter [bæɾɹ̩]
In English, the phones [t] and [ɾ] are variants of the same phoneme, /t/. The conditions under which, or environments in which, these phonetic variants occur is predictable, with /t/ occurring as the plosive [t] in environments like (1a) and as the flap [ɾ] in environments like (1b). Since these two phones don't occur in the same environments, English can't use them to distinguish between words. (I don't mean to imply a one-way cause-effect relationship there though.) However, in Spanish, [t] and [ɾ] do occur in the same environments, as in (2). (I'm stealing this example from a book -- I don't kow how to spell (2a).)
(2) a. ?? [pita] meaning 'century plant'
(2) [/color]b. pi
ra [piɾa] 'funeral pyre'
In Spanish, [t] and [ɾ] are used to distnguish between words and are each phonemes, /t/ and /ɾ/.
As another quick example, Spanish doesn't distinguish between English's
dare and
there.
A morpheme is basically just an atomic unit of meaning, and a root is the 'base word' to which you add other pieces or make changes. For example, in
(3) unwillingly = un-will-ing-ly
each of those segments represents a morpheme.
Will is the root -- it is the only morpheme that can show up on its own, so we say that
will is a free morpheme, while the other 3 are bound.
Anywho, they are basic concepts that I imagine are likely to fall out pretty early on in a close examination of language, though the phone vs. phoneme distiction might not be as obvious (it might take a more scientific, cross-linguistic study to notice -- though spelling vs. pronunciation might bring it out).
I wonder - what was lost in the burning of the great library in Alexandria?
Yep, very sad.