Undergrad Parity operator and a free particle on a circle

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The discussion centers on the parity operator in quantum mechanics, particularly its application to a free particle on a circle with boundary conditions ψ(0) = ψ(L). Participants clarify that the parity operator, defined as Pψ(x) = ψ(-x), is self-adjoint and can be represented as a matrix, despite the infinite-dimensional nature of the basis. The confusion arises around the matrix representation of the parity operator and its action on wave functions, particularly regarding how it transforms e^(ikx) into e^(-ikx). It is established that the matrix form of the parity operator can vary depending on the specific wave function, yet it remains self-adjoint across different representations. The conversation emphasizes the importance of understanding the relationship between operators and their matrix forms in quantum mechanics.
dyn
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Hi.
I have just looked at a question concerning a free particle on a circle with ψ(0) = ψ(L). The question asks to find a self-adjoint operator that commutes with H but not p.

Because H commutes with p , i assumed there was no such operator.
The answer given , was the parity operator. It acts as PψN = ψ-N.The answer then states it can be seen to be self-adjoint by writing it as a matrix in this basis.
I do not know how to write the parity operator as a matrix in this basis. For starters is the basis not infinite-dimensional ?
Any help would be appreciated. Thanks
 
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dyn said:
I have just looked at a question

Can you give a specific reference?
 
It is an old exam question I found. It is not online.
 
dyn said:
Because H commutes with p , i assumed there was no such operator.
You've probably already figured out that that assumption is not valid - even if A and B commute with C, it does not follow that A and B commute with one another. A more familiar example will be angular momentum: ##L_x##, ##L_y##, and ##L_z## all commute with ##L^2## but not with one another.
I do not know how to write the parity operator as a matrix in this basis. For starters is the basis not infinite-dimensional ?
It is, but that doesn't have to stop you. There's a (rather straightforward) closed-form expression for the elements of the matrix ##P_{ij}##, and you can use that to check for self-adjointness.
 
Nugatory said:
You've probably already figured out that that assumption is not valid - even if A and B commute with C, it does not follow that A and B commute with one another. A more familiar example will be angular momentum: ##L_x##, ##L_y##, and ##L_z## all commute with ##L^2## but not with one another.
Thank you that is a very helpful example.

Nugatory said:
It is, but that doesn't have to stop you. There's a (rather straightforward) closed-form expression for the elements of the matrix ##P_{ij}##, and you can use that to check for self-adjointness.
The closed form expression for the matrix might be straightforward but I have no idea what it is ?
 
I found on the net that the parity operator matrix was diag( -1 , -1 , -1 , ….) but that doesn't change eikx into e-ikx. So can anybody tell me what the parity operator matrix is ?
Thanks
 
Your boundary condition constrains the possible values of ##k##.
 
I appreciate your reply but it doesn't make the picture any clearer for me
 
dyn said:
I found on the net that the parity operator matrix was diag( -1 , -1 , -1 , ….) but that doesn't change eikx into e-ikx.

Why not?

Also, when you say you "found on the net", where? Please give a specific reference.
 
  • #10
PeterDonis said:
Why not?
.
Because (-1)(eikx) does not equal e-ikx
 
  • #11
dyn said:
Because (-1)(eikx) does not equal e-ikx

But what if the ##-1## acts on ##x## instead of ##e^{ikx}##?
 
  • #12
Then it would equal e-ikx but surely the (-1) acts on the wavefunction as in Pψ(x) = ψ(-x)
 
  • #13
dyn said:
surely the (-1) acts on the wavefunction as in Pψ(x) = ψ(-x)

Look at what you just wrote. If ##\psi(x) = e^{ikx}##, then what is ##\psi(-x)##? And if ##P\psi(x) = \psi(-x)##, what does that tell you?
 
  • #14
If ψ(x) = eikx then ψ(-x) = e-ikx but I still don't know what the parity operator is ?
 
  • #15
dyn said:
I still don't know what the parity operator is ?

What operator did you write down in post #12?
 
  • #16
PeterDonis said:
What operator did you write down in post #12?
I wrote the parity operator as -1 or diag(-1 , -1 , -1 , ….) but I don't see how (-1) changes eikx into e-ikx.
It just changes eikx into -eikx
 
  • #17
dyn said:
I wrote the parity operator as -1 or diag(-1 , -1 , -1 , ….)

Not in post #12 you didn't. In that post you wrote down an equation involving ##P \psi(x)##. What was it?
 
  • #18
PeterDonis said:
Not in post #12 you didn't. In that post you wrote down an equation involving ##P \psi(x)##. What was it?
I wrote Pψ(x) = ψ(-x)
 
  • #19
dyn said:
I wrote Pψ(x) = ψ(-x)

Yes. What is ##P## in that equation?
 
  • #20
the parity operator either in matrix form or acting on individual wavefunctions
 
  • #21
dyn said:
the parity operator

Right. And that equation in post #12 appeared as part of this:

dyn said:
surely the (-1) acts on the wavefunction as in Pψ(x) = ψ(-x)

So you have a ##-1## acting on the wave function, giving the result you're looking for. So what, exactly, is the problem?
 
  • #22
dyn said:
the parity operator either in matrix form or acting on individual wavefunctions

Perhaps this is part of your confusion: the parity operator "in matrix form" and "acting on individual wavefunctions" are not two different things. They're the same thing, just written in different forms. A wave function is just a continuous form of a state vector, and a state vector is just a discrete form of a wave function.

So maybe you should start with this: if the Hilbert space is finite dimensional, can you write down the parity operator? And show how it acts on a state vector and why it's self-adjoint?
 
  • #23
because -1 acting on eikx gives -eikx and this is not the same as e-ikx which is what you should get after the partity operator acts on eikx
 
  • #24
dyn said:
because -1 acting on eikx gives -eikx

But the equation you wrote down in post #12 doesn't have the ##-1## acting on ##\psi(x)##. It has the ##-1## acting on ##x##. Look at what you wrote. You wrote ##P \psi(x) = \psi(-x)##. What is being multiplied by ##-1## in that expression?
 
  • #25
PeterDonis said:
But the equation you wrote down in post #12 doesn't have the ##-1## acting on ##\psi(x)##. It has the ##-1## acting on ##x##. Look at what you wrote. You wrote ##P \psi(x) = \psi(-x)##. What is being multiplied by ##-1## in that expression?
I appear to be going round in circles here. If P is -1 then it is acting on the wavefunction but that gives -eikx and not e-ikx which is what it should be
 
  • #26
dyn said:
I appear to be going round in circles here.

Yes, because you're not responding to the questions I'm asking, you just keep repeating yourself.

Can you answer the question I asked in post #24, just as I asked it?
 
  • #27
PeterDonis said:
But the equation you wrote down in post #12 doesn't have the ##-1## acting on ##\psi(x)##. It has the ##-1## acting on ##x##. Look at what you wrote. You wrote ##P \psi(x) = \psi(-x)##. What is being multiplied by ##-1## in that expression?
The wavefunction ψ(x) is being multiplied by -1
 
  • #28
Another suggestion if the line I've been trying to get you to follow just won't work:

If you are going to represent operators by matrices, you have to represent states by state vectors, not wave functions. So you need to think of a state vector ##| \psi \rangle## instead of a wave function ##\psi(x)##. But you can also write down a correspondence between state vectors and wave functions: if we have a state vector ##| \psi \rangle##, then the wave function is given by ##\psi(x) = \langle x | \psi \rangle##. Similarly, the wave function ##P \psi(x)## that you get by acting on the state with an operator ##P## is written in matrix/state vector form as ##P \psi(x) = \langle x | P | \psi \rangle##.

Two things you might consider at this point:

First, how would you translate ##P \psi(x) = \psi(-x)## into the matrix/state vector form given the above?

Second, in the expression ##\langle x | P | \psi \rangle##, you can view ##P## as acting on ##| \psi \rangle## from the left, or as acting on ##\langle x |## from the right. What does that suggest in the light of the equation ##P \psi(x) = \psi(-x)##?
 
  • #29
dyn said:
The wavefunction ψ(x) is being multiplied by -1

No. You're not even reading what you wrote. I'll try once more: we have the equation ##P \psi(x) = \psi(-x)##. What gets multiplied by ##-1## going from the LHS to the RHS, just looking at the equation as it's written, forgetting everything you think you know about the operator ##P##? "The wave function" ##\psi## is not the right answer.
 
  • #30
PeterDonis said:
No. You're not even reading what you wrote. I'll try once more: we have the equation ##P \psi(x) = \psi(-x)##. What gets multiplied by ##-1## going from the LHS to the RHS, just looking at the equation as it's written, forgetting everything you think you know about the operator ##P##? "The wave function" ##\psi## is not the right answer.
Going from the RHS to the LHS , x is multiplied by -1. But that doesn't tell me what P is.
Its very late here. I need to get some sleep. Thank you for your time
 

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