Partial derivative in spherical coordinates

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The discussion addresses the confusion surrounding the calculation of partial derivatives in spherical coordinates. The user calculates the partial derivatives of x and r with respect to each other but finds differing results. It is clarified that the partial derivatives ∂r/∂x and ∂x/∂r are not necessarily reciprocal due to their definitions involving different constant variables. The correct definitions for these derivatives involve holding specific variables constant, which leads to the observed discrepancies. This highlights the importance of understanding the context in which partial derivatives are defined.
jonathanpun
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I am facing some problem about derivatives in spherical coordinates

in spherical coordinates:
x=r sinθ cos\phi
y=r sinθ sin\phi
z=r cosθ

and
r=\sqrt{x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}}
θ=tan^{-1}\frac{\sqrt{x^{2}+y{2}}}{z}
\phi=tan^{-1}\frac{y}{x}

\frac{\partial x}{\partial r}=sinθ cos\phi
then \frac{\partial r}{\partial x}=\frac{1}{sinθ cos \phi }

but if i calculate directly from r:
\frac{\partial r}{\partial x} = \frac{x}{\sqrt{x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}}}
substitute:
=\frac{r sinθ cos \phi }{r}
= sinθ cos\phi

Why do the results are different? what i did wrong?From https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=63886
not this case is the second case? but why the inverse still not true?
 
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∂r/∂x is defined for constant x and y.
∂x/∂r is defined for constant θ and φ.

There is no reason that they should be reciprocal.
 
mathman said:
∂r/∂x is defined for constant x and y.
You mean "for constant y and z" don't you?

∂x/∂r is defined for constant θ and φ.

There is no reason that they should be reciprocal.
 
HallsofIvy said:
You mean "for constant y and z" don't you?

Correct - my typo.
 
There are probably loads of proofs of this online, but I do not want to cheat. Here is my attempt: Convexity says that $$f(\lambda a + (1-\lambda)b) \leq \lambda f(a) + (1-\lambda) f(b)$$ $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (f(a) - f(b))$$ We know from the intermediate value theorem that there exists a ##c \in (b,a)## such that $$\frac{f(a) - f(b)}{a-b} = f'(c).$$ Hence $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (a - b) f'(c))$$ $$\frac{f(b + \lambda(a-b)) - f(b)}{\lambda(a-b)}...

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