Partial Derivative of a Parametric Equation

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the confusion surrounding the partial derivative of a parametric equation, specifically regarding the coordinates of a particle's world line represented as xi = fi(t). It is established that x is not an independent coordinate in this context, as it explicitly depends on the parameter t. The total derivative, denoted as ˙xi = d xi/d t, is equivalent to the partial derivative due to the one-dimensional nature of the function f: ℝ → ℝ.

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emob2p
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Hi,
I'm getting confused over a few points on the derivative of a parametric equation.
Say we the world line of a particle are represented by coordinates [tex]x^i[/tex]. We then parametrize this world line by the parameter t. [tex]x^i = f^i(t)[/tex].

Now here is where I get confused. The partial derivative [tex]\frac {\partial x^i}{\partial t}[/tex] should be zero since x is an independent coordinate and has no explicit time dependence. However, if I take the partial of the RHS above, clearly this is nonzero.

Moreover we define [tex]\dot x^i[/tex] as [tex]\dot x^i = \frac{d x^i}{d t}[/tex]. It seems the RHS will be the same if we take a partial or total derivative, yet the LHS will be zero if we take [tex]\frac {\partial x^i}{\partial t}[/tex] but [tex]\dot x^i[/tex] if we take [tex]\dot x^i = \frac{d x^i}{d t}[/tex]. Is my question clear? Thanks.
 
Last edited:
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emob2p said:
Hi,
I'm getting confused over a few points on the derivative of a parametric equation.
Say we the world line of a particle are represented by coordinates [tex]x^i[/tex]. We then parametrize this world line by the parameter t. [tex]x^i = f^i(t)[/tex].

Now here is where I get confused. The partial derivative [tex]\frac {\partial x^i}{\partial t}[/tex] should be zero since x is an independent coordinate and has no explicit time dependence. However, if I take the partial of the RHS above, clearly this is nonzero.

Moreover we define [tex]\dot x^i[/tex] as [tex]\dot x^i = \frac{d x^i}{d t}[/tex]. It seems the RHS will be the same if we take a partial or total derivative, yet the LHS will be zero if we take [tex]\frac {\partial x^i}{\partial t}[/tex] but [tex]\dot x^i[/tex] if we take [tex]\dot x^i = \frac{d x^i}{d t}[/tex]. Is my question clear? Thanks.

Except t isn't a coordinate, it's a parameter. x does have an explicit time dependance, you've given it one when you equated x to f(t). x is not an independent coordinate in this circumstance, t is. That's like saying y=f(x), so [tex]\frac{dy}{dx}[/tex] must be zero because y is an independent coordinate.

The total and partial derivatives with respect to t are the same here because [itex]f:\mathbb{R}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}[/itex] is a one dimensional function.
 
Last edited:

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