emob2p
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Hi,
I'm getting confused over a few points on the derivative of a parametric equation.
Say we the world line of a particle are represented by coordinates [tex]x^i[/tex]. We then parametrize this world line by the parameter t. [tex]x^i = f^i(t)[/tex].
Now here is where I get confused. The partial derivative [tex]\frac {\partial x^i}{\partial t}[/tex] should be zero since x is an independent coordinate and has no explicit time dependence. However, if I take the partial of the RHS above, clearly this is nonzero.
Moreover we define [tex]\dot x^i[/tex] as [tex]\dot x^i = \frac{d x^i}{d t}[/tex]. It seems the RHS will be the same if we take a partial or total derivative, yet the LHS will be zero if we take [tex]\frac {\partial x^i}{\partial t}[/tex] but [tex]\dot x^i[/tex] if we take [tex]\dot x^i = \frac{d x^i}{d t}[/tex]. Is my question clear? Thanks.
I'm getting confused over a few points on the derivative of a parametric equation.
Say we the world line of a particle are represented by coordinates [tex]x^i[/tex]. We then parametrize this world line by the parameter t. [tex]x^i = f^i(t)[/tex].
Now here is where I get confused. The partial derivative [tex]\frac {\partial x^i}{\partial t}[/tex] should be zero since x is an independent coordinate and has no explicit time dependence. However, if I take the partial of the RHS above, clearly this is nonzero.
Moreover we define [tex]\dot x^i[/tex] as [tex]\dot x^i = \frac{d x^i}{d t}[/tex]. It seems the RHS will be the same if we take a partial or total derivative, yet the LHS will be zero if we take [tex]\frac {\partial x^i}{\partial t}[/tex] but [tex]\dot x^i[/tex] if we take [tex]\dot x^i = \frac{d x^i}{d t}[/tex]. Is my question clear? Thanks.
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