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Partial Derivatives and their Inverses?

  1. Dec 1, 2013 #1
    Hi I have a question about partial derivatives?

    For example if I have a function x = r cos theta

    for all functions, not just for this function will dx/d theta be the inverse of dtheta/dx, so 1 divided by dx/d theta will be d theta/ dx? Please help on this partial derivative question. Thanks.

    also for example if i have a function x = p cosh (n) and i need to find the partial derivative dn/dx can i find the partial derivative dx/dn and do 1 divided by dx/dn to find dn/dx?

    Please help me on this.
  2. jcsd
  3. Dec 2, 2013 #2


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    hi rollbackcc! :smile:


    1 = ∂θ/∂θ = ∂θ/∂x*∂x/∂θ + ∂θ/∂y*∂y/∂θ :wink:

    (to put it another way: ∂x/∂θ is calculated keeping r constant, ∂θ/∂x is calculated keeping y constant …

    a partial derivative is always calculated keeping all variables constant except the one you're differentiating wrt to)
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