Hi there. I have to solve this problem. The statement says as follows:(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

A particle beam with l=1, without spin and with momentum p is incident on the plane x= 0. In the region x<0 the particles move freely and for x>0 are under the action of a constant magnetic field H in the z direction [tex]V(x) = - \gamma m_z H_z[/tex] Assuming that the beam is not polarized what proportion of particles is reflected?

I thought of solving the schrÃ¶dinger equation for the given potential in both regions of space. But I don't see how the angular momentum gets into the mud.

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# Homework Help: Particle beam without spin into a magnetic field

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