Particle in a Box: Solving for Acceptable Wave Function with Boundary Conditions

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on determining the acceptability of the wave function \(\Psi = \left(\frac{2}{L}\right)^{1/2} \sin\left(\frac{\pi x}{L}\right)\) for a particle in a box with potential \(V(x) = 0\) for \(-\frac{L}{2} < x < \frac{L}{2}\) and \(\infty\) otherwise. The consensus is that this wave function does not satisfy the boundary conditions, as it does not vanish at the boundaries \(x = -\frac{L}{2}\) and \(x = \frac{L}{2}\). The correct approach involves using both sine and cosine functions to construct acceptable solutions, confirming that the proposed wave function is not valid.

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Homework Statement



V(x) = 0 if [itex]\frac{-L}{2}[/itex]<x<[itex]\frac{L}{2}[/itex] and [itex]\infty[/itex] otherwise.

Is the wave function [itex]\Psi[/itex] = (2/L)[itex]^{1/2}[/itex] (sin ([itex]\pi[/itex]x/L) an acceptable solution to this? Explain

Homework Equations



H[itex]\Psi[/itex]= E[itex]\Psi[/itex] , normalization: 1 = [itex]\int[/itex] wavefunction^{2}dx

The Attempt at a Solution



My logic is that I have to come up with a wave function that satisfy the boundary condition. Therefore [itex]\Psi[/itex] (x= [itex]\frac{-L}{2}[/itex]) = [itex]\Psi[/itex] (x = [itex]\frac{L}{2}[/itex]) = 0

My initial answer was that it's not because I was thinking that the wavefunction itself has to be A[/itex]cosine(bx), where b=2n[itex]\pi[/itex]/L. n = 1/4, 3/4 , 5/4 ...

I am not quite sure if that's correct. Also when I try to calculate the normalization factor (A), it turns out to be 1 = [itex]\frac{A^{2}L}{2}[/itex] + [itex]\frac{A^{2}L}{n\pi}[/itex] sin ([itex]\frac{n\pi}{2}[/itex])
 
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thomashpotato said:

Homework Statement



V(x) = 0 if [itex]\frac{-L}{2}[/itex]<x<[itex]\frac{L}{2}[/itex] and [itex]\infty[/itex] otherwise.

Is the wave function [itex]\Psi[/itex] = (2/L)[itex]^{1/2}[/itex] (sin ([itex]\pi[/itex]x/L) an acceptable solution to this? Explain

Homework Equations



H[itex]\Psi[/itex]= E[itex]\Psi[/itex] , normalization: 1 = [itex]\int[/itex] wavefunction^{2}dx

The Attempt at a Solution



My logic is that I have to come up with a wave function that satisfy the boundary condition. Therefore [itex]\Psi[/itex] (x= [itex]\frac{-L}{2}[/itex]) = [itex]\Psi[/itex] (x = [itex]\frac{L}{2}[/itex]) = 0
This is right. Does the proposed wave function satisfy these conditions?

My initial answer was that it's not because I was thinking that the wavefunction itself has to be A[/itex]cosine(bx), where b=2n[itex]\pi[/itex]/L. n = 1/4, 3/4 , 5/4 ...
You'll actually get both sine and cosine solutions if you solve the infinite square well problem completely, so just because this wave function has a sine in it isn't reason enough to exclude it.

I am not quite sure if that's correct. Also when I try to calculate the normalization factor (A), it turns out to be 1 = [itex]\frac{A^{2}L}{2}[/itex] + [itex]\frac{A^{2}L}{n\pi}[/itex] sin ([itex]\frac{n\pi}{2}[/itex])
 
I think your reasoning is correct. The wave function doesn't vanish at the boundaries. So it's not good. I wouldn't worry about whether the normalization is correct if the boundary conditions aren't correct.
 

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