stever Messages 41 Reaction score 0 Thread starter Nov 3, 2016 #1 I was wondering if all particles of a given type are considered to be exactly alike.
mfb Mentor Insights Author Messages 37,489 Reaction score 14,379 Nov 3, 2016 #2 Yes, and you can show this by showing that they obey the Fermi-Dirac or Bose-Einstein statistic. There is no plausible way how different particles (no matter how tiny the differences are) could do this.
Yes, and you can show this by showing that they obey the Fermi-Dirac or Bose-Einstein statistic. There is no plausible way how different particles (no matter how tiny the differences are) could do this.