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Planck's constant, h. The limit goes to zero?

  1. Dec 10, 2009 #1
    Why does it work out classically that the limit of h goes to zero? I'm reading a paper that says in QM, this is different. It's also talking about Bohr. Any ideas?
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Dec 10, 2009 #2
  4. Dec 10, 2009 #3
    Thanks Bob. I'm not sure why this paper says that.
     
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