Plank's constant, phase integral and quantization of action

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Plank's constant is often described as a unit of action, with connections made between the quantization of action and the phase integral, particularly in the context of the Wilson-Sommerfeld rule. The discussion references the formula for action in classical mechanics, dS = pdq - Hdt, and explores how the phase integral, when quantized, relates to Planck's energy quantization. It suggests that quantization of action can be derived by considering the integral of the Hamiltonian alongside the action. The conversation highlights the distinction between having units of action and being identical to action itself. This exploration aims to clarify the relationship between these fundamental concepts in quantum mechanics.
phonon44145
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I apologize in advance if this is too trivial, but...

Time and again, I hear something along the lines of "Plank's constant is a unit of action", or "Plank's constant is a unit of action in the old quantum theory". In addition, many texts imply some sort of connection between quantization of action and the phase integral. For example, the Eisberg-Resnik textbook (2 ed, p. 112) has this to say about the Wilson-Sommerfeld rule: "The quantity Integral (p dx) is sometimes called a phase integral, in classical physics it is the integral of he dynamical quantity called the action over one oscillation of the motion. Hence, the Plank energy quantization is equivalent to the quantization of action".

Now, as far as I understand Classical Mechanics, the relevant formula for action says

dS = pdq - Hdt

where S is action, p and q are the generalized momentum and coordinate, and H is the Hamiltonian. Then if we require that the phase integral is quantized according to Wilson-Sommerfeld rule, Integral (pdx) = nh, then it only follows that the Plank energy quantization is equivalent to the quantization of the quantity S + Integral (Hdt). How does one derive quantization of S from here?
 
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Planck's constant has units of angular momentum
 
Obviously. And it also has units of action. But saying "it has units of" is not the same as saying "it is identical to".
 
phonon44145 said:
I apologize in advance if this is too trivial, but...

Time and again, I hear something along the lines of "Plank's constant is a unit of action", or "Plank's constant is a unit of action in the old quantum theory". In addition, many texts imply some sort of connection between quantization of action and the phase integral. For example, the Eisberg-Resnik textbook (2 ed, p. 112) has this to say about the Wilson-Sommerfeld rule: "The quantity Integral (p dx) is sometimes called a phase integral, in classical physics it is the integral of he dynamical quantity called the action over one oscillation of the motion. Hence, the Plank energy quantization is equivalent to the quantization of action".

Now, as far as I understand Classical Mechanics, the relevant formula for action says

dS = pdq - Hdt

where S is action, p and q are the generalized momentum and coordinate, and H is the Hamiltonian. Then if we require that the phase integral is quantized according to Wilson-Sommerfeld rule, Integral (pdx) = nh, then it only follows that the Plank energy quantization is equivalent to the quantization of the quantity S + Integral (Hdt). How does one derive quantization of S from here?

You can take dq to be virtual displacements of q, which keeps time fixed.
 
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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