MHB Pointwise Conv. | Does $f_{n}$-$f$ -> 0 for Each x?

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Does pointwise convergence mean that |$f_{n}$-$f$|->0 for each x?
 
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Fermat said:
Does pointwise convergence mean that |$f_{n}$-$f$|->0 for each x?
Yes. More precisely, it means that for each $x$ (in some specified domain) $|f_n(x) - f(x)| \to0$ as $n\to\infty$.
 
Fermat said:
Does pointwise convergence mean that |$f_{n}$-$f$|->0 for each x?

Wellcome back to MHB Fermat!... yes, pointwise convergence to f(x) means that $\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} |f_{n} (x) - f(x)| = 0$ for any x in the domain...

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$\chi$ $\sigma$
 
I posted this question on math-stackexchange but apparently I asked something stupid and I was downvoted. I still don't have an answer to my question so I hope someone in here can help me or at least explain me why I am asking something stupid. I started studying Complex Analysis and came upon the following theorem which is a direct consequence of the Cauchy-Goursat theorem: Let ##f:D\to\mathbb{C}## be an anlytic function over a simply connected region ##D##. If ##a## and ##z## are part of...

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