- #1

LagrangeEuler

- 708

- 19

In that case for ##x<0##

[tex]\psi_1(x)=Ae^{ikx}+Be^{-ikx}[/tex]

and for ##x\geq 0##

[tex]\psi_2(x)=Cx+D [/tex]

and then from ##\psi_1(0)=\psi_2(0)## and ##\psi_1'(0)=\psi_2'(0)## I got a system

[tex]1+\frac{B}{A}=\frac{D}{A}[/tex]

[tex]ik-ik\frac{B}{A}=\frac{C}{A}[/tex]

and I can not solve this. Maybe is necessary to take ##C=0##? But why?