Prime Factorial Conjecture: Investigating p! Mod p2 for Prime Numbers

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the conjecture that for any prime \( p \), \( p! \) is congruent to \( p^2 - p \) modulo \( p^2 \). Participants explore the implications of this conjecture, investigate related mathematical concepts, and share observations on patterns in factorials of primes.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant inquires about the existence of a name or proof for the conjecture regarding \( p! \) and its congruence modulo \( p^2 \).
  • Another participant references Euler's theorem and discusses its relevance to numbers that are not coprime, specifically using examples like \( 7! \) and \( 72 \).
  • A participant presents a series of observations showing that the conjecture holds for primes up to 13, listing specific congruences for each factorial.
  • One participant suggests reducing the problem to understanding why \( (p-1)! \equiv p-1 \) (mod \( p \)), indicating a potential pathway to explore the conjecture further.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express varying levels of understanding and interest in the conjecture, with some agreeing on the validity of observed patterns while others question the underlying principles. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the conjecture's proof or broader implications.

Contextual Notes

There are limitations in the discussion, including assumptions about the applicability of certain theorems and the scope of the conjecture, particularly regarding the behavior of factorials and their congruences.

numbthenoob
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Is there a name and/or proof for the following conjecture?

"For any prime p, p! is congruent to p2-p modulo p2."

Thanks much.
 
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I think this might be of interest:

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Thanks, Dickfore, that was of interest, even if most of it was over my head.

However, if I understand correctly...Euler's theorem is about the relationship between coprimes. I'm researching numbers that are not coprime, for example 7! and 72, where the gcd is 7, not 1.

To take another example, can I say with certainty that 66797! is congruent to 66797*66796 mod 667972 without having to calculate 66797!?

I've noticed that the pattern holds at least up to 13, i.e.

2! = 2 mod 4
3! = 6 mod 9
5! = 20 mod 25
7! = 42 mod 49
11! = 110 mod 121
13! = 156 mod 169

My question is: ...and so on? And a follow-up: if so, why?
 
It might help to reduce the problem

p!=p2-p (mod p2) means that p2 divides (p!-p2+p)=p((p-1)!-p+1). We can divide a p out from everything

So really the question is, why is (p-1)!=p-1 (mod p). If you know that Zp is a field you can figure this out. If not, you probably still can, I just don't see how off the top of my head
 
"[URL Theorem[/URL]
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Thanks Office Shredder and Gib Z, those were both very enlightening comments.
 
Good points Office_Shredder I learned something new formula.
 

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