Probabilities of archers A and B hitting the bull's eye

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the probabilities of two archers, A and B, hitting a bull's eye in a shooting scenario where A shoots first. The probabilities of hitting the target are given as 1/6 for A and 1/5 for B. The original poster seeks to demonstrate that the probability of A hitting the bull's eye first is 1/2.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore various scenarios in which A could hit the bull's eye first, including hitting on the first attempt or after a series of misses by both archers. There is discussion about calculating the probabilities for these scenarios and the challenges of determining when to stop the calculations.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, proposing different methods to calculate the probabilities and questioning the assumptions behind their reasoning. Some have suggested using geometric series to sum the probabilities, while others are clarifying the implications of the probabilities involved in each scenario.

Contextual Notes

There is a mention of a formula related to geometric series, which some participants express confusion about. Additionally, there are references to similar problems involving different probabilities in a competitive shooting context, indicating a broader exploration of the topic.

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Homework Statement


Two archers A and B take turns to shoot, with archer A taking the first shot. The probabilities of archers A and B hitting the bull's eye is 1/6 and 1/5 respectively. Show that the probability of archer A hitting the bull's eye first is 1/2.


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


Well, i thought about drawing tree diagram but the problem is I have no idea when to stop because I don't know when he will hit.
 
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First, what are the possible ways for this to happen?

A could hit the bulls eye on his first attempt. Or, A misses, B misses and then A hits the bulls eye. Or, A misses, B misses, A misses, B misses and then A hits the bulls eye... and so on.

Find the probability for each of these ways (for A to hit the bull's eye first), and add them up.

You will need to use the following:

1 + a2 + a3 + ... = 1/(1-a) for |a| < 1
 


the problem is, if he hits on the first attempt that's 1/6. so If i go on, it will be 1/6 + ( 5/6 * 4/5 * 5/6 * 4/5 * 5/6 * 4/5...) I have no idea when to stop. Moreover, the product of probability he misses will be come smaller and smaller and that number + 1/6 will not give me half i think.
 


Let's take the case when A gets it on his second try: A misses, B misses, and then A hits. What is the probability for this?
 


dx said:
Let's take the case when A gets it on his second try: A misses, B misses, and then A hits. What is the probability for this?

that will be 5/6 * 4/5 * 1/6 right?
 


dx said:
First, what are the possible ways for this to happen?

A could hit the bulls eye on his first attempt. Or, A misses, B misses and then A hits the bulls eye. Or, A misses, B misses, A misses, B misses and then A hits the bulls eye... and so on.

Find the probability for each of these ways (for A to hit the bull's eye first), and add them up.

You will need to use the following:

1 + a2 + a3 + ... = 1/(1-a) for |a| < 1

I'm sorry but what's this?
'1 + a2 + a3 + ... = 1/(1-a) for |a| < 1'
 


Yes, correct.

Now what is the probability that A gets it on his 3rd try? (A misses, B misses, A misses, B misses, A hits bull's eye)

jinhuit95 said:
I'm sorry but what's this?
'1 + a2 + a3 + ... = 1/(1-a) for |a| < 1'

Ignore that for the moment. We'll get to it soon.
 


5/6* 4/5 * 5/6 * 4/5 * 1/6
 


Correct.

So do you see the pattern?

First try: 1/6

Second try: (1/6)(4/6)

Third try: (1/6)(4/6)2

Fourth try: (1/6)(4/6)3

...

What is the probability that he gets in on the n'th try? Each time you are simply multiplying the previous one by (5/6)(4/5) = 4/6
 
  • #10


1/6 * 4/6 ^ n-1!
 
  • #11


Exactly.

Now you simply add them up. Let a = 4/6

(1/6) + (1/6)a + (1/6)a2 + (1/6)a3...

which is (1/6)(1 + a + a2 + a3 + a4...)

This is where you use the formula I mentioned before.
 
  • #12


dx said:
Exactly.

Now you simply add them up. Let a = 4/6

(1/6) + (1/6)a + (1/6)a2 + (1/6)a3...

which is (1/6)(1 + a + a2 + a3 + a4...)

This is where you use the formula I mentioned before.

Got it! Thanks a lot!:smile:
 
  • #13


No problem.
 
  • #14


jinhuit95 said:
Got it! Thanks a lot!:smile:

Here is another approach: let x = the probability that A will win, given that A is just about to shoot.

If A hits the target on his first shot, he wins; the probability of this is 1/6. If A misses his first shot (prob. = 5/6), then for A to win it must be the case that B misses his first shot (prob = 4/5); at that point, A is just about to shoot and we are back to the starting point (win prob. = x at that point). So, altogether we have
x = \frac{1}{6} + \frac{5}{6} \frac{4}{5}\, x = \frac{1}{6} + \frac{2}{3} x.
Solving, we get x = 1/2.
 
  • #15


@Ray
Is there a reason why doing: $$x = \frac{1}{6} + \frac{2}{3}x + \frac{5}{6} \frac{4}{5} \frac{5}{6} \frac{4}{5}x,$$ and solving is incorrect? (I am just considering the possibility of both A and B losing until A hits on his third go).
 
  • #16


My friend Kim and I had a similar competition, but we're much worse. I am slightly worse than Kim, so I went first. On anyone shot, my chance of hitting the bull is 1/39, and Kim's chance is 1/38.

Show that, once again, this is an even competition - my chance of getting the bull's eye first is 1/2.
 
  • #17


Joffan said:
My friend Kim and I had a similar competition, but we're much worse. I am slightly worse than Kim, so I went first. On anyone shot, my chance of hitting the bull is 1/39, and Kim's chance is 1/38.

Show that, once again, this is an even competition - my chance of getting the bull's eye first is 1/2.
Are you stuck? If so, just use exactly the same method as you used to solve the first one. Alternatively, say you win on your ##i##th shot. This means you (or Kim) cannot have hit the bull on the previous ##i-1## attempts.
What is the prob of you not hitting the bull on the ##i-1## attempts?
What is the prob of Kim not hitting the bull on her ##i-1## attempts?
What is the prob of you hitting on the ##i##th trial given that you and Kim failed on the ##i-1## trials?
By the independence of trials you can then multiply these together and sum.
(This is really the same method by dx just reworded a bit differently)
 
  • #18


Joffan said:
My friend Kim and I had a similar competition, but we're much worse. I am slightly worse than Kim, so I went first. On anyone shot, my chance of hitting the bull is 1/39, and Kim's chance is 1/38.

Show that, once again, this is an even competition - my chance of getting the bull's eye first is 1/2.
Just use Ray's method again. It's much the simplest way to solve these problems. Did you understand Ray's method?
 
  • #19


Sorry for the misunderstanding guys. I was giving an extension question to illustrate the reasoning; I'm not stuck.
 
  • #20


CAF123 said:
@Ray
Is there a reason why doing: $$x = \frac{1}{6} + \frac{2}{3}x + \frac{5}{6} \frac{4}{5} \frac{5}{6} \frac{4}{5}x,$$ and solving is incorrect? (I am just considering the possibility of both A and B losing until A hits on his third go).

We can see it is incorrect by solving it and getting the wrong answer (x = -3/2 instead of x = 1/2). To understand WHY it is wrong, go back and look at the definition of x and the argument I gave for the equation satisfied by x. The point is that x already includes all the possibilities of winning on the first, third, fifth, ... go.

However, it would be correct to write
x = \frac{1}{6} + \frac{2}{3}\frac{1}{6} + \frac{2}{3}\frac{2}{3}\,x
for similar reasons. This equation does have the correct solution x = 1/2.
 
Last edited:

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