MHB Probability Challenge: Jason's 2010 Coin Flips

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Jason's coin has a probability of $\frac{2}{3}$ to match the previous flip and $\frac{1}{3}$ to show the opposite side. After flipping the coin once and getting heads, he flips it 2010 more times. The probability that the last flip is heads can be calculated using a Markov chain approach with the transition matrix provided. The final probability is expressed as $P = \frac{1 + 3^{-2010}}{2}$, which is very close to $\frac{1}{2}$.
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Jason has a coin which will come up the same as the last flip $\dfrac{2}{3}$ of the time and the other side $\dfrac{1}{3}$ of the time. He flips it and it comes up heads. He then flips it 2010 more times. What is the probability that the last flip is heads?
 
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anemone said:
Jason has a coin which will come up the same as the last flip $\dfrac{2}{3}$ of the time and the other side $\dfrac{1}{3}$ of the time. He flips it and it comes up heads. He then flips it 2010 more times. What is the probability that the last flip is heads?

[sp]It's a simple Markov chain problem and the transition matrix is...

$\displaystyle A = \left | \begin{matrix} \frac{2}{3} & \frac{1}{3} \\ \frac{1}{3} & \frac{2}{3} \end{matrix} \right |\ (1) $

The solution is the term of first line and first column of $ A^{n}$ for n=2010. This term is the solution of the difference equation...

$\displaystyle a_{n+1} = \frac{a_{n}}{3} + \frac{1}{3}\ a_{1}= \frac{2}{3}\ (2)$

... which is...

$\displaystyle a_{n} = \frac {1 + 3^{- n}}{2}\ (3)$

The requested value is therefore $P = \frac{1 + 3^{- 2010}}{2}$, very close to $\frac{1}{2}$ of course (Wink)...[/sp]

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$
 
chisigma said:
[sp]It's a simple Markov chain problem and the transition matrix is...

$\displaystyle A = \left | \begin{matrix} \frac{2}{3} & \frac{1}{3} \\ \frac{1}{3} & \frac{2}{3} \end{matrix} \right |\ (1) $

The solution is the term of first line and first column of $ A^{n}$ for n=2010. This term is the solution of the difference equation...

$\displaystyle a_{n+1} = \frac{a_{n}}{3} + \frac{1}{3}\ a_{1}= \frac{2}{3}\ (2)$

... which is...

$\displaystyle a_{n} = \frac {1 + 3^{- n}}{2}\ (3)$

The requested value is therefore $P = \frac{1 + 3^{- 2010}}{2}$, very close to $\frac{1}{2}$ of course (Wink)...[/sp]

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$

Well done, chisigma, well done!:cool:
 

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