Probability doubt - where am i wrong?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the unique probability distribution of a specially defined dice where the probability of rolling a number is proportional to the number itself. The calculated probabilities for rolling numbers 1 through 6 are 1/21, 2/21, 3/21, 4/21, 5/21, and 6/21, respectively. The classical probability formula of favorable cases over total cases does not apply here because the outcomes are not equally likely, highlighting a fundamental limitation of classical probability definitions.

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jd12345
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There is a dice where probability of obtaining a number is proportional to the number itself.
I have done these problems and the probabilties are 1/21, 2/21,/3/21,/4/21,/5/21 and 6/21

In a normal dice when you have to find probabilities of say, 2 and 4 we do it by favourable cases / total number of cases = 2/6 = 1/3

But you can't apply that method in this case - i know that but why?

Probability of 2 or 4 in this case would be 2/21 + 4/21 = 6/21
but why can't we do this by favourable cases / total number of cases?
 
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hi jd12345! :smile:
jd12345 said:
… but why can't we do this by favourable cases / total number of cases?

that formula only applies when each case is equally likely :wink:
 
Check the three drawbacks of "Classical" definition.
 

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