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Probability interpretation question

  1. May 17, 2014 #1
    If a have the following formula

    ψ*(r1,...rn,σ1,...σn)ψ(r1,...rn,σ1,...σn)

    how can interpret it?


    the probability of finding a particle in a set of coordinates r1,...rn, with spin σ1,...σn or

    the probability of finding a particle in a set of coordinates r1,...rn,σ1,...σn ?

    I know that this is a stupid question...
     
  2. jcsd
  3. May 17, 2014 #2
    I would say the first. The second would make no sense from the notation.
     
  4. May 17, 2014 #3
    I googled it and i found that

    ψ*(r1,...rn,σ1,...σn)ψ(r1,...rn,σ1,...σn) is the probability that the N particles are at a particular set of coordinates r1,...rn , with a particular spin σ1,...σn.

    So we can not find the prob. for one particle? Just for the N particles?
     
    Last edited: May 17, 2014
  5. May 17, 2014 #4
    I guess that depends how many particles are in the system and whether they are entangled or not. If they are entangled you won't be able to separate the wave-function out for a single particle.
     
  6. May 17, 2014 #5
    Ok, but im still not understanding something.

    Considering that the N particle are entangled,

    My thought:
    probability that the N particles are at coordinates r1,...rn , with spin σ1,...σn.

    Google answer:
    probability that the N particles are at a particular set of coordinates r1,...rn , with a particular spin σ1,...σn.

    what is the difference?
     
  7. May 17, 2014 #6
    I don't think there is any difference. Each n will refer to a different particle. Sorry if I am not understanding the confusion properly.
     
  8. May 17, 2014 #7
    Ok i got it.

    Thanks for the help.
     
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