Probability of picking someone who opposes and favors

  • Thread starter Thread starter MACHO-WIMP
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Probability
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The probability of selecting two individuals who favor and four who oppose from a group of six people, where 17 favor and 8 oppose, is calculated using the hypergeometric distribution. The total number of ways to choose 6 people from 25 is given by 25C6, which equals 177100. The specific combinations for favoring and opposing individuals are 17C2 (136) and 8C4 (70), respectively. The final probability is computed as 9520 divided by 177100, resulting in approximately 0.05375.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of hypergeometric distribution
  • Familiarity with binomial coefficients
  • Basic combinatorial mathematics
  • Knowledge of probability theory
NEXT STEPS
  • Study hypergeometric distribution applications in statistics
  • Learn about binomial coefficients and their calculations
  • Explore advanced probability concepts and their real-world applications
  • Practice combinatorial problems to strengthen mathematical skills
USEFUL FOR

Statisticians, mathematicians, students studying probability theory, and anyone interested in combinatorial analysis.

MACHO-WIMP
Messages
42
Reaction score
0
Out of 25 people, 17 favor and 8 oppose something. What is the probability of picking two who favor and four who oppose out of six people?

25C6=177100 to find the # of ways to get 6 people.
Then find those who favor 17C2=136
Then find those who oppose 8C4=70
Multiply that together 136×70=9520
Then divide by total number of ways to pick 6 people 9520/177100=.0537549407
Did I do this right?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Yes, you did just fine. If you want to look at it more generally, this problem involves a standard hypergeometric distribution, defined as follows. If we have a population of N1 things of type 1 and N2 things of type 2, and pick a sample of n things at random without replacement, the probability of getting k type 1 things in the sample is
[tex]P\{ k \text{ type 1 }\} = \frac{C(N_1,k) C(N_2,n-k)}{C(N_1 + N_2,n)},[/tex]
where C(a,b) is the binomial coefficient
[tex]C(a,b) = \frac{a!}{b! (a-b)!} = \frac{1(a-1) \cdots (a-b+1)}{b!}.[/tex]
In your case you have N1 = 17, N2 = 8, n = 6 and k = 2, so the probability is
[tex]p = \frac{C(17,2)C(8,4)}{C(25,6)} = \frac{17\cdot 16}{2 \cdot 1} \cdot \frac{8 \cdot 7 \cdot 6 \cdot 5}{4 \cdot 3 \cdot 2 \cdot 1} \cdot <br /> \frac{6 \cdot 5 \cdot 4 \cdot 3 \cdot 2 \cdot 1}{25 \cdot 24 \cdot 23 \cdot 22 \cdot 21} = \frac{68}{1265} \doteq 0.05375 .[/tex]

RGV
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
3K
Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
7
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
3K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
3K
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
4K