- #1
leehufford
- 98
- 1
Hello,
The point of this thread is to find the mathematical error in summing divergent series. For example the series: 1+2+4+8+16+32+64+...+... (doubling the numbers, or alternatively: increasing powers of 2).
I've seen the argument that you multiply the series by 1, then substitute (2-1) for 1. All of the terms cancel except for -1 (the series appears to add to -1).
Now, I tried the same thing but by substituting (3-2) for 1 instead of (2-1), and the series still tends to infinity, which leads me to believe the (-1) of the (2-1) is somehow special.
But also, I noticed that two infinite power series can be multiplied. For example, the series for e^x and the series for sin(x) can be multiplied term wise to give the series for sin(x)e^x.
So my two questions are:
1.) Where is the mathematical fault in the procedure first described? I originally thought you can't multiply a scalar by an infinite series, but it seems that if you can multiply two infinite series you ought to be able to multiply a scalar by an infinite series.
2.) Also, why does substituting (3-2) instead of (2-1) change the result? Thanks a ton in advance,
Lee
The point of this thread is to find the mathematical error in summing divergent series. For example the series: 1+2+4+8+16+32+64+...+... (doubling the numbers, or alternatively: increasing powers of 2).
I've seen the argument that you multiply the series by 1, then substitute (2-1) for 1. All of the terms cancel except for -1 (the series appears to add to -1).
Now, I tried the same thing but by substituting (3-2) for 1 instead of (2-1), and the series still tends to infinity, which leads me to believe the (-1) of the (2-1) is somehow special.
But also, I noticed that two infinite power series can be multiplied. For example, the series for e^x and the series for sin(x) can be multiplied term wise to give the series for sin(x)e^x.
So my two questions are:
1.) Where is the mathematical fault in the procedure first described? I originally thought you can't multiply a scalar by an infinite series, but it seems that if you can multiply two infinite series you ought to be able to multiply a scalar by an infinite series.
2.) Also, why does substituting (3-2) instead of (2-1) change the result? Thanks a ton in advance,
Lee