Product of quadratic nonresidues is a residue

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving a property of quadratic residues and nonresidues in modular arithmetic, specifically concerning prime numbers. The original poster seeks to demonstrate that the product of two quadratic nonresidues modulo a prime \( p \) results in a quadratic residue modulo \( p \). The context involves group theory and elementary number theory concepts.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to use group theory to prove the statement but struggles to find an elementary proof. Some participants question the validity of certain group properties and suggest using Fermat's Little Theorem. Others explore the implications of quadratic residues and nonresidues through the properties of powers in modular arithmetic.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, offering insights and corrections regarding the use of group structures and theorems. There is a notable exchange of ideas, with some participants suggesting potential methods while others express uncertainty about how to apply certain concepts. A participant claims to have found a solution, which is positively received by another participant.

Contextual Notes

There is a discussion about the limitations of the original poster's proof approach, particularly regarding the requirement for an elementary proof and the lack of coverage of the Legendre symbol in class. Participants also note the need to clarify definitions and properties of quadratic residues and nonresidues.

Broccoli21
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Homework Statement


Prove that if p is prime, then if A is a quadratic nonresidue mod p and B is also a quadratic nonresidue mod p, then AB is a quadratic residue mod p.

Homework Equations


A is a nonresidue means A = x^2 (mod p) has no solutions

The Attempt at a Solution


I already proved that product of two residues is a residue, and that a residue and a nonresidue make a nonresidue. Also it's easy to prove by contradiction that 1/A (which always exists because p is prime) is a residue iff A is a residue.

Now as for the given question, I have actually solved it using group theory, but the class requires a proof from elementary principles. We have not covered the legendre symbol either. My proof is this:

the integers Z_p={0...p-1} form a cyclic group under multiplication, and thus have a generator g. So any integer in Z_p can be written as a power of g, so the residues are even powers and the nonresidues are odd powers. So A=g^odd and B=g^odd so AB=g^odd+odd=g^even so AB is a residue.

I can't seem to extend this to an elementary proof (using congruences and whatnot) though, and can't even see a way to start. :frown:

Thanks in advance!
 
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Broccoli21 said:
the integers Z_p={0...p-1} form a cyclic group under multiplication

This is not true.

\mathbb{Z}_p\setminus \{0\} is a cyclic group though.

What can you use?? Can you use Fermat's little theorem?
 
micromass said:
This is not true.

\mathbb{Z}_p\setminus \{0\} is a cyclic group though.

What can you use?? Can you use Fermat's little theorem?

Oh thanks for catching that. Yeah I suppose that doesn't work. Using fermat's little theorem, we know that:

a = a^p (mod p)
b = b^p (mod p)
ab = (ab)^p (mod p)

but here, I can't really see how to proceed. How do I use the fact they a and b are non-residues?

If we let q=(p-1)/2, we also get an integer such that

(ab)^2q = 1 (mod p)

but this ultimately seems to get going nowhere :|
sorry that I can't seem to see where to apply the given conditions
 
Do you know that a is a quadratic residue iff a^{(p-1)/2}=1 (mod p) and -1 otherwise??
 
I am not aware of that theorem. I managed to prove that if a is a residue, then indeed:
(everything below is mod p)
a = x^2
hence:
a^(p-1)/2 = x^p-1 = 1
to prove the opposite direction, assume that a^(p-1)/2 = 1. Then:
I can't seem to prove that in this case, a is a residue. However I did that, then because we can factor fermat's little theorem:
0 = (a^(p-1)/2 -1)(a^(p-1)/2 +1)
, the only two possible values for a^(p-1)/2 are +1 and -1 so I would be done, and this statement would imply the result of the original problem.

However I don't know how to prove that a^(p-1)/2 = 1 implies that a is a residue. Thanks for the help so far, by the way!
 
Hmmm, I see no other proof than using that there exists an element g such that all integers x with gcd(x,p)=1 can be written as g^n=x (mod p) for a certain n. But this is not a basic result.
 
I think I might have solved it. Can you check if this works?
suppose a is a quadratic nonresidue
We know in general that if:
cb=db
then
b(c−d)=0
so c=d.

Thus for b∈{1,...,p−1}, {b,2b,...,(p−1)b} is {1,...,p−1} rearranged modulo p, and for all b∈{1,...,p−1}, there is exactly one c∈{1,...,p−1} such that cb=a (mod p of course). We also note that if c=b, then c=1 or c=p-1 so since a is not a residue, c=/=b.

Thus we partition the set {1,...,p−1} into pairs with that property. Now notice that the product:

(1)(2)...(p-1)=(p-1)! contains all of these pairs, of which there are (p-1)/2.
So
(p-1)! = a^(p-1)/2

but another way to look at (p-1)! is that we can group all the numbers in a similar fashion as before, but now with cb=1. But remember that c=b iff c=1 or c=p-1. So ignore those and compute the product:

(2)(3)...(p-2)=(p-2)! = 1

now multiply by p-1:

(p-1)! = p-1 = -1.

so if we go back to equation 1), we see

a^(p-1)/2 = -1, the desired result for nonresidues.

Does this work?
 
That seems correct. Very, very nice solution!
 
Thanks Micromass!
 

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