Proof Abelian Group: Consec Ints & No Follow w/2

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The problem involves a group \( G \) and a relation concerning the operation of the group, specifically that \( (a.b)^i = a^i.b^i \) holds for three consecutive integers \( i \). The goal is to show that this implies \( G \) is abelian and to explore the implications if the relation holds for only two consecutive integers.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to demonstrate the abelian property through algebraic manipulation of the given relation for three integers. They also seek an example of a non-abelian group that satisfies the relation for two integers.
  • Some participants question the interpretation of the problem, suggesting the use of contrapositive reasoning to explore the implications of the relation.
  • Another participant proposes a specific example, \( S_3 \), to illustrate a case where the relation holds for two integers but the group is not abelian.

Discussion Status

Contextual Notes

Participants are considering the implications of the relation under different conditions, particularly the transition from three consecutive integers to two, and the potential for counterexamples in non-abelian groups.

pedrommp
Messages
3
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



If [tex]G[/tex] is a group in which [tex](a.b)^i=a^i.b^i[/tex] for three consecutive integers [tex]i[/tex] for all [tex]a,b \in G[/tex] , show that [tex]G[/tex] is abelian.

Show that the conclusion does not follow if we assume the relation [tex](a.b)^i=a^i.b^i[/tex] for just two consecutive integers.

Homework Equations



The basic group identities

The Attempt at a Solution



Well, the first part i made :

Let j be the smallest of the three consecutive integers. Then we have that

[tex](a.b)^j = a^j.b^j[/tex]

[tex](a.b)^{j+1} = a^{j+1}.b^{j+1}[/tex] and

[tex](a.b)^{j+2} = a^{j+2}.b^{j+2}[/tex] for all [tex]a, b \in G[/tex]

Inverting the first equation and right multiplying it to the second equation implies

[tex]a.b = a^{j+1}.b^{j+1}.b^{-j}.a^{-j} = a^{j+1}.b.a^{-j}[/tex] hence

[tex]b.a^j = a^j.b[/tex]

Inverting the second equation and right multiplying it to the third equation gives

[tex]a.b = a^{j+2}.b^{j+2}.b^{-j-1}.a^{-j-1} = a^{j+2}.b.a^{-j-1}[/tex] hence

[tex]b.a^{j+1} = a^{j+1}.b[/tex]

Therefore [tex]a^{j+1}.b = b.a^{j+1} = b.a^{j}.a = a^{j}.b.a[/tex] and left multiplying by

[tex]a^{-j}[/tex] yields [tex]a.b = b.a[/tex] for arbitrary [tex]a, b \in G[/tex]

Hence G is abelian.

But the second i tried to find an example of non-abelian group that satisfies the relation for two consecutive integers with no success.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
I might be missing something, but have you tried the contrapositive for the second part?

That is, I am interpreting this question as: The relation (the one you described for 3 consecutive integers) holds if and only if G is abelian.

Did I interpret correctly? If so, I'd try to prove the contrapositive.
 
Would it be cheating to assume i=0 and i=1? This would provide a counterexample...
 
I think i got it, if i take [tex]S_3[/tex] then for all [tex]a , b \in S_3[/tex] we have

[tex](a.b)^0=e=e.e=a^0.b^0[/tex] and

[tex](a.b)^1=a^1.b^1[/tex]

Hence [tex](a.b)^i=a^i.b^i[/tex] for two consecutive integers but [tex]S_3[/tex] is not abelian.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
1K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
3K
  • · Replies 22 ·
Replies
22
Views
4K