Proof by contradiction for simple inequality

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the inequality $$-1 \leq \frac{1-a}{a} \leq 1$$ under the condition that ##a \approx 1##. The original poster is exploring a proof by contradiction approach to establish this inequality.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts a proof by contradiction, considering cases where $$\frac{|1-a|}{a} > 1$$ and questioning the implications of concluding that ##a < 1/2##. Some participants question the clarity of the term "approximately equal to" in the context of the problem.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the original poster's reasoning, with some suggesting that the conclusion drawn from the contradiction is valid. There is a focus on clarifying the definition of "approximately equal to" and its implications for the proof.

Contextual Notes

There is an ongoing discussion about the ambiguity of the term ##a \approx 1## and how it can be made more precise. The original poster expresses concern about the mathematical rigor of their conclusions regarding the bounds of ##a##.

tomwilliam2
Messages
117
Reaction score
2

Homework Statement


I'm trying to show that if ##a \approx 1##, then
$$-1 \leq \frac{1-a}{a} \leq 1$$

I've started off trying a contradiction, i.e. suppose
$$ \frac{|1-a|}{a} > 1$$

either i)
$$\frac{1-a}{a} < -1$$
then multiply by a and add a to show
$$1 < 0$$
which is clearly false,

or ii)
$$1 < \frac{1-a}{a}$$
Which by the same reckoning leads me to
$$a < \frac{1}{2}$$

Which seems inconsistent with the original statement that ##a \approx 1##.
It's hardly a rock solid proof though, is it?
Is there a better way of doing this?
Thanks
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Yes, it is inconsistent! This is a proof by contradiction, remember? Your result that a< 1/2 contradicts the fact that a is close to 1.
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: 1 person
Thanks HallsofIvy. So you think that is enough to prove the original statement then?
The reason I thought it was a bit wooly, was that ##a \approx 1## is unclear regarding exactly how close to 1 it is!
Also, given that my final conclusion limits ##a## to less than 1/2, I'm unclear as to why they chose 1 as the bound in the original question. They could have chosen a range of other numbers (i.e ##-0.5 < (1-a)/a < 0.5##) and normally these things work out neater.
But if you think it's a sound proof, that's all that counts.
Thanks
 
No, your conclusion is NOT that a is less than 1/2! Your conclusion is that assuming that (1- a)/a> 1 leads to "a< 1/2" which contradicts the given fact that "[itex]a\approx. 1[/itex]".
 
Sorry, I didn't make myself clear:
Yes, I am concluding that assuming (1-a)/a > 1 leads to a < 1/2. But my problem is with the second point. Does that necessarily contradict the fact that ##a \approx 1##? That doesn't seem mathematically rigorous to me (although I'm only a beginner). Imagine, for example, that ##a## was a measure of the distance on a galactic scale...something like a=1/4 would be fairly close to 1, on that scale wouldn't it? Doesn't the "approximately equal to" have some more precise definition?
Thanks
 
You can make it more precise by defining "If ##a \approx 1## then X" to mean "There is an ##\epsilon > 0## such that X for all ##a## satisfying ##|a - 1| < \epsilon##."

Then ##a < 1/2## contradicts ##a \approx 1## because for any candidate ##\epsilon##, you can find a value ##a## such that ##1/2 < a < 1## for which ##|a - 1| < \epsilon## but not ##a < 1/2##.
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: 1 person
Thanks CompuChip, that tidies it up nicely.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
3K
Replies
12
Views
4K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
Replies
4
Views
3K
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
2K