[Proof] Fourier Coefficients = zero => function zero

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that if an integrable function \( f \), which is \( 2\pi \)-periodic, has all its Fourier coefficients equal to zero, then \( f \) is almost everywhere zero. The focus is on finding alternative proof methods without relying on the convergence of the Fourier series in \( L_p \)-norm.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Technical explanation, Debate/contested, Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant inquires about proving the statement without using the convergence of the Fourier series in \( L_p \)-norm.
  • Another participant suggests using Parseval's theorem, arguing that if the Fourier coefficients are zero, the time-integrated power of the function must also be zero, implying the function itself is zero.
  • A subsequent post reiterates the suggestion of using Parseval's theorem, noting that it relates to \( L_2 \) convergence, which is the goal of the original inquiry.
  • Another participant expresses uncertainty about how to suggest a proof without knowing the starting point and proposes using the uniqueness of the Fourier transformation and its self-inverse property.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants have not reached a consensus on a specific proof method. Multiple suggestions have been made, but no agreement exists on the best approach to take.

Contextual Notes

The discussion highlights the challenge of suggesting proof strategies without a clear understanding of the participants' foundational knowledge or starting points.

nonequilibrium
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Hello!

How do I prove
If an integrable function f, 2pi-periodic, has all its Fourier coefficients equal to zero, then f is almost everywhere zero itself.
?

Thank you!

(it can be proven by using the convergence of the Fourier series in L_p-norm, but I want to use the above result to prove the convergence in L_2-norm, so I want to avoid that)
 
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Can you use Parseval's theorem? If the Fourier coefficients are zero, then the time-integrated power in the function is also zero, so the function itself must be zero.
 
marcusl said:
Can you use Parseval's theorem? If the Fourier coefficients are zero, then the time-integrated power in the function is also zero, so the function itself must be zero.
Parseval's theorem is the L2 convergence theorem, which is what he is trying to prove.
 
Hm thank you both.

So is there another suggestion?
 
You can Google Parseval's theorem.
 
It's always hard to suggest what to do for a proof, because we don't know what the starting point is, but I would be inclined to use uniqueness of the Fourier transformation plus the fact that a Fourier transformation is (more or less) its own inverse.
 

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