Proof l'hopital for infinity over infinity

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SUMMARY

This discussion focuses on the proof of l'Hôpital's Rule for the indeterminate form of infinity over infinity. The key argument presented is that if the limit of the quotient of the derivatives, lim_{x \rightarrow a} \frac{g'(x)}{f'(x)}, exists, then both functions f and g must be differentiable in an interval around a, excluding a itself. The participants emphasize the importance of ensuring that f(c) and g(c) are finite values, as the proof hinges on this assumption. Additionally, the discussion critiques the clarity of the original sources regarding the hypotheses of the rule.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of limits and continuity in calculus
  • Familiarity with derivatives and differentiability
  • Knowledge of the formal statement of l'Hôpital's Rule
  • Basic comprehension of indeterminate forms in calculus
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the formal proof of l'Hôpital's Rule for different indeterminate forms
  • Explore the implications of differentiability in calculus
  • Review the definitions and properties of limits, particularly at infinity
  • Investigate the differences between finite values and infinity in mathematical contexts
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Students of calculus, mathematicians, and educators seeking a deeper understanding of l'Hôpital's Rule and its applications in evaluating limits involving indeterminate forms.

georg gill
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i wonder about this proof for l'hopital for infinity over infinity:

http://planetmath.org/encyclopedia/ProofOfLHopitalsRuleForInftyinftyForm.html

how is this proved:

http://bildr.no/view/1011658
 
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\lim_{x \rightarrow a } \frac{ 1 - \frac{g(c)}{g(x)} }{ 1 - \frac{f(c)}{f(x)}} = 1

I think this because g(c) is a finite number and lim_{x \rightarrow a} g(x) = \infty or - \infty. So the numerator approaches 1 - 0. Likewise the denominator approaches 1 - 0.
 
The only thing one should proof is just that f(c) and g(c) is not infinite I guess.
 
The planet math main article on l'Hospitals rule doesn't clearly state the hypotheses of the rule. (It even misspells the word "existence".) You are correct that the proof you linked ought to justify the assumption that f(c) and g(c) are finite.

I think the key to doing that is to interpret the hypothesis that lim_{x \rightarrow a} \frac{g'(x)}{f'(x)} exists. (The Wikipedia version of the rule says "exists or is infinite".) As I interpret this hypothesis, it is not assumption that f'(a) and g'(a) exists as individual functions. I think we must try to argue that if the limit of the quotient exists at x = a then there must be an open interval containing a where both f'(x) ang g'(x) exist everywhere in the interval except possibly at x = a. The functions f and g are differentiable at those points, hence continuous and hence finite. We can pick c to be in this interval.
 
Quote from proof:

This is because f(x) og g(x) were assumed to approach \pm\infty when x is close enough to a, they will exceed the fixed value f(c), g(c) and 0.

I find the word exceed a bit strange if f(x) or g(x) goes to -\infty it will have lover value then f(c) or g(c) I guess.

But one thing that would make it clear even though I can struggle a bit with the words chosen would be if it is so that a fixed value can not be \pm\infty Is it so that \pm\infty is not a defined as a value?
 
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