FAS1998
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How can you prove that
##f(x)=g(x) \Leftrightarrow f(x)+C=g(x)+C##
##f(x)=g(x) \Leftrightarrow f(x)+C=g(x)+C##
The discussion centers around the proof of the reversibility of addition, specifically examining the relationship between functions and constants in the context of group theory. Participants explore the implications of defining addition on different sets and the conditions under which reversibility holds.
Participants express differing views on the implications of group theory for addition and the nature of operations like exponentiation. There is no consensus on how to approach the proof of reversibility for operations outside of groups.
The discussion highlights the importance of the definitions of operations and the sets from which elements are drawn, indicating that assumptions about these factors are critical to the arguments presented.
What do you mean by "elements"?fresh_42 said:I can't as long as I don't know where your elements are taken from.
##f(x),g(x),C##FAS1998 said:What do you mean by "elements"?
This is what I meant.fresh_42 said:##f(x),g(x),C##
If they were, as usual, from ##\mathbb{R}##, then the answer would be: because ##(\mathbb{R},+)## is a group. But if you had defined addition differently on some set, then there is not enough information about it.
Being in a group means existence of an additive inverse, -C.FAS1998 said:I just looked over the wikipedia page for groups and now understand why ##(\mathbb{R},+)## is a group, but why does belonging to a group imply reversibility?
##x \longmapsto e^x## or ##x \longmapsto x^n## e.g. by the theorem of invertible functions or in general step by step. They aren't operations anymore, just other functions.FAS1998 said:How would we prove the reversibility of other operations such as exponentiation (for values >= 0), that don't belong to groups?